Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Animal Sciences
Answers are formatted bold.
VETERINARY EXTENSION EDUCATION – 20 Qs.
1) Extension Education is
a) Formal education
b) Informal education
c) Non-formal education
d) Out of box education
2) Community Development Project started in the year
a) 1950
b) 1951
c) 1952
d) 1953
3) Which of the following attributes of innovation are negatively correlated with its adoption
a) Trialability
b) Complexity
c) Observability
d) Predictability
4) Which of the following is not a mass contact method
a) Leaflets
b) Campaign
c) Posters
d) Office call
5) The first step in extension teaching is
a) Satisfaction
b) Action
c) Awareness
d) Attention
6) Two-factor theory of motivation was given by
a) Herzberg
b) Maslow
c) Roling
d) Weber
7) Which of the following is an example of specimen?
a) River
b) Sun
c) Mountain
d) Beetle
8) Who is known as “Father of Indian Extension Education”?
a) KN Singh
b) A Adivi Reddy
c) Van Den Ben
d) James Stuart
9) The cone of experience was developed by
a) Kuldeep Nair
b) Edgar Dale
c) SC Parmar
d) CK Berlo
10) Flag method is categorized under
a) Spoken method
b) Written method
c) Group method
d) Mass method
11) The most suited extension method to show the relative worth of a new practice is
a) Campaign
b) Group discussion
c) Result demonstration
d) Method demonstration
12) The blue print of action is known as
a) Project
b) Programme
c) Plan
d) Objective
13) The toll free number for Kisan Call Centre is
a) 1515
b) 1551
c) 5151
d) 5115
14) Multilingual ‘Pashu Prajanan App’ was developed by
a) NDRI
b) IVRI
c) NIANP
d) CIRB
15) KVKs were established on the recommendations of
a) MS Mehta Committee
b) BR Mehta Committee
c) MS Swaminathan Committee
d) Kothari Committe
16) Total number of KVKs in India are
a) 616
b) 656
c) 716
d) 756
17) The uncomfortable state of mind which an individual tends to eliminate is
a) Disturbance
b) Dissonance
c) Disgracement
d) Disenchantment
18) The true quantitative variable among the following is
a) Gender
b) Age
c) Race
d) Religion
19) Type of sampling in which all the items of the universe have equal chance of getting selected is called as
a) Proportionate sampling
b) Probability sampling
c) Non-probability sampling
d) Quota sampling
20) t-test tends to be Z-test when the sample size increases beyond
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
ANIMAL GENETICS & BREEDING – 20 Qs.
1) Eye colour in drosophila is an example of
a) Sex linked inheritance
b) Sex limited inheritance
c) Sex influenced inheritance
d) Incomplete dominance
2) If the X/A ratio is 0.5, the individual will be
a) Intersex
b) Normal female
c) Super female
d) Normal male
3) Total number of barr bodies in an individual with Turner’s syndrome
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
4) In translocation, the exchange of chromosomal segments occurs
a) With in the same chromosome
b) Between homologous chromosomes
c) Between non homologous chromosomes
d) Both b and c
5) Type of gene action in general combining ability (GCA) is
a) Additive
b) Non-additive
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
6) Range of h2 and fitness is
a) 0 to 1
b) -1 to +1
c) 0 to infinity
d) Infinity to infinity
7) The proportion of population which shows genetic death is
a) Genetic sterility
b) Genetic linkage
c) Genetic load
d) Genetic drift
8) For inbreeding, mated individuals should have common ancestors with in
a) 2-3 generations
b) 4-6 generations
c) 6-8 generations
d) More than 10 generations
9) Inbreeding coefficients of progenies produced by self-mating, parent offspring mating, full sibs and half sibs are in the order
a)1, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125
b) 0.5, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125
c) 1, 0.5, 0.5, 0.25
d) 0.5, 0.25, 0.25, 0.125
10) Hissardale is a cross between
a) Merino ewe x Bikaneri ram
b) Lincoln ram x Rambouillet ewe
c) Merino ram x Bikaneri ewe
d) Lincoln ewe x Rambouillet ram
11) In the second generation, hybrid vigour will be
a) Same as the first
b) Doubled the first
c) Half of the first
d) None of the above
12) Selection differential depends on several factors except
a) Phenotypic standard deviation
b) Sex of the individual
c) Heritability
d) Proportion of animal selected
13) The intensity of selection depends with number traits considered ‘n’ is
a) 1/n
b) 1/n2
c) n
d) 1/√n
14) Non additive gene action include
a) Epistasis
b) Dominance
c) Interaction
d) All of the above
15) If heritability of a particular trait is 0.2, then it indicates
a) Trait is 20 % heritable
b) Additive genetic variance is 20%
c) Breeding value of individual is 80 %
d) Phenotypic variance is 80%
16) If the coefficient of selection is 0.25, then the fitness is
a) 1
b) 0.25
c) 75
d) 0.5
17) Father of modern animal breeding is
a) Bakewell
b) Wright
c) Lush
d) Gauss
18) In Recurrent Reciprocal Selection which of the following is not involved
a) General combining ability
b) Specific combining ability
c) Inbred line
d) Heterozygosity
19) The goat breed Toggenberg originated from
a) Spain
b) Denmark
c) Switzerland
d) France
20) The significance of two variances is tested by which test
a) t-test
b) F-test
c) Chi-square test
d) Z-test
ANIMAL NUTRITION – 20 Qs
1) When fat content of ruminant ration is increased beyond 10% then it would lead to
a) Increase fiber digestion
b) Decrease fiber digestion
c) Increase protein digestion
d) Decrease protein digestion
2) For conversion of tyrosine to melanin, enzymes requires which of the following metal ions?
a) Cu
b) Mn
c) Mg
d) Co
3) End product of carbohydrate digestion in non-ruminant is
a) Glycogen
b) Glucose
c) Volatile fatty acids
d) Maltose
4) Which of the following is not correctly matched
a) Soybean: Trypsin inhibitor
b) Raw fish: Thiaminase
c) Tapioca: HCN
d) Ricin: GNC
5) Water requirement is related to:
a) Energy intake
b) Mineral intake
c) Dry matter intake
d) Protein intake
6) Heat increment is the heat lost as
a) Post absorptive state
b) Exercise
c) Excess energy intake
d) None
7) Which of the following is essential fatty acid for farm animals
a) Linolenic acid
b) Butyric acid
c) Octanoic acid
d) Lauric acid
8) Anti-sterility vitamin is
a) Cynocobalamine
b) Tocopherol
c) Ergosterol
d) Cholesterol
9) Vitamin G is also known as
a) Thiamine
b) Riboflavin
c) Pyridoxine
d) Niacin
10) Gross energy can be determined by
a) Carbon Nitrogen balance
b) Adiabatic calorimeter
c) Thermometer
d) Bomb-Calorimeter
11) In ruminants, how much amount of methane energy lost as % of GE intake?
a) 5-7 %
b) 8-10 %
c) 11-12 %
d) 13-15 %
12) Which of the following amino acids contain sulphur?
a) Tryptophan
b) Lysine
c) Methionine
d) Citrulline
13) Avidine is an anti-metabolite for
a) Choline
b) Folic acid
c) Lipoic acid
d) Biotin
14) Urea is best utilized by ruminants in presence of
a) Protein
b) Available carbohydrate
c) Fat
d) Minerals
15) Osteomalacia is a condition usually seen in
a) Dry non pregnant animals
b) Young animals
c) Growing animals
d) Adult animals
16) Heat production in animal varies with
a) Body weight
b) Body size
c) Metabolic body size
d) None
17) Antibiotic feed additives in pre-ruminant calves are recommended because it
a) Reduces calf scours
b) Increase Palatability
c) Early maturity
d) None of these
18) Zinc deficiency in pigs and cattle causes
a) Para tuberculosis
b) Parathyroid diseases
c) Parakeratosis
d) Perosis
19) By-Pass protein indicate protecting high quality protein from microbial degradation in
a) Rumen
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Rectum
20) The %DCP content in calf starter is
a) 18-20%
b) 14-16%
c) 12-14%
d) 24-26%
LIVESTOCK PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT – 20 Qs
1) Sub-order Perissodactyla refers to
a) Even-toed ungulates
b) Odd-toed ungulates
c) Carnivores
d) Mammals
2) In loose housing system, floor space of open area required for bull in square feet is
a) 100-200
b) 180-200
c) 220-260
d) 20-24
3) Cross between a male horse and female ass is
a) Mule
b)Jennet
c) Honkey
d) Hinny
4) The largest contribution to meat production in India is by
a) Poultry
b) Sheep
c) Goat
d) Pig
5) The natural feeding behaviour of goats is known as
a) Ranching
b) Browsing
c) Grazing
d) Lurching
6) Act of mating in sheep is known as
a) Ramming
b) Eweing
c) Tupping
d) Coupling
7) Castrated male pig is known as
a) Steer
b) Gelding
c) Wether
d) Barrow
8) In case of ewe, feeding of extra greens 2-3 weeks prior to the breeding season is known as
a) Steaming up
b) Challenge feeding
c) Flushing
d) Force feeding
9) Smallest piglet in a litter is known as
a) Crit
b) Runt
c) Card
d) All the above
10) A cow which is apparently always in heat is called
a) Heater
b) Freemartin
c) Buller
d) None of these
11) As per BIS Specifications, the percentage of calcium in layer ration should be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
12) The dual purpose chicken variety Vanaraja was developed by
a) CARI, Izatnagar
b) CPDO, Bengaluru
c) IVRI, Izatnagar
d) DPR, Hyderabad
13) Total permanent teeth in swine amounts to
a) 28
b) 32
c) 36
d) 44
14) Ear notching is commonly used as identification technique in
a) Poultry
b) Pigs
c) Sheep
d) Cattle
15) For removal of dried dung etc., brushing is carried out
a) In the same direction as hair flow
b) Against the flow of hair
c) Perpendicular to hair flow
d) Brushing is not used for the purpose
16) Bentonite in the poultry diet is an example of
a) Hormone
b) Anti-oxidant
c) Adsorbent
d) Pellet binder
17) Chemical method of disbudding involves use of
a) Caustic potash
b) Caustic soda
c) Either of the above
d) None of the above
18) The lactation phase of cattle and buffaloes with peak dry matter intake is
a) Early phase
b) Mid phase
c) Last phase
d) All the above phases
19) Key Village Scheme to produce stud bulls of recognized breeds was initiated in the
a) First Five Year Plan
b) Second Five Year Plan
c) Third Five Year Plan
d) Fourth Five Year Plan
20) The original breeding tract of Beetal goat is
a) Punjab
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Jammu & Kashmir
LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY -20 Qs
1) Natural casings are prepared from
a) Mucosa
b) Submucosa
c) Muscular layer
d) Serosa
2) Most commonly used barrier bag for vacuum packaging are
a) Polyethylene
b) Polyvinylidene
c) Polypropylene
d) Polyester
3) Frankfurter is a typical example of
a) Uncooked sausage
b) Cooked unsmoked sausage
c) Cooked smoked sausage
d) Uncooked smoked sausage
4) Cold shortening of muscle occurs when pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a temperature of
a) 5 to –10 degree Celsius
b) 0 to 15 degree Celsius
c) -1.5 to –3 degree Celsius
d) -20 to –30 degree Celsius
5) Myofibrillar proteins are
a) Globular
b) Fibrous
c) Globular and fibrous
d) Neither globular nor fibrous
6) Bloom is referred as the property of
a) Fresh carcass
b) Frozen carcass
c) Cooked meat
d) Smoked meat
7) ___________ is referred as inspector’s lymph node
a) Bronchial
b) Mediastinal
c) Supra scapular
d) Popliteal
8) One livestock unit is equivalent to
a) 1 adult bovine: 2 pigs: 3 calves: 5 sheep
b) 1 adult bovine: 3 pigs: 5 calves: 10 sheep
c) 1 adult bovine: 3 pigs: 3 calves: 5 sheep
d) 1 adult bovine: 2 pigs: 3 calves: 6 sheep
9) The colour of the pigment nitrosohemochromogen is
a) Brown
b) Pink
c) Red
d) Bright red
10) Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called
a) Weasand
b) Middles
c) Bungs
d) Rounds
11) Average protein content of carcass meal is
a) 50%
b) 30%
c) 70%
d) 40%
12) Cytoplasm of muscle fiber is called as
a) Protoplasm
b) Sarcoplasm
c) Sarcomere
d) Ground substance
13) Bacterial spoilage in chilled meat is due to bacteria of _____________ group
a) Psychrophilic
b) Mesophilic
c) Thermophilic
d) Microaerophilic
14) Meat patties are cooked in an oven to an internal temperature of
a) 70 degree Celsius
b) 90 degree Celsius
c) 60 degree Celsius
d) 85 degree Celsius
15) Glycogen content of normal bovine muscle ranges from
a) 5-1.3%
b) 1-1%
c) 2–3.5 %
d) 1- 3 %
16) The heat coagulation of milk occurs due to
a) Destabilization of milk proteins
b) Desaturation of whey proteins
c) Scaffolding of milk proteins
d) All of above
17) Fat percentage in khoa prepared from cow milk is
a) 20 %
b) 15 %
c) 25 %
d) 50 %
18) The radiation dose of ________ is sufficient to kill the pathogenic bacteria
a) 1 M rad
b) 1 M rad
c) 10 M rad
d) 100 M rad
19) Water activity in intermediate moisture foods is maintained between
a) 0.6 – 0.85%
b) 3 – 0.4%
c) 8 – 1%
d) 2 – 0.5%
20) Freezing point of meat lies between
a) – 2 to – 0 degree Celsius
b) – 1 to –1.5 degree Celsius
c) 0 to – 3 degree Celsius
d) – 1 to 0 degree Celsius
ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY – 20 Qs
1) Anterior pituitary is embryo logically developed from
a) Neural tube
b) Neural crest
c) Pharyngeal epithelium
d) None
2) The most effective stimulus for cerebral circulation is
a) Oxygen deficiency
b) Baro-receptor reflex
c) Decreased glucose
d) Excess Carbon Dioxide
3) Most of the blood clotting factors are produced in
a) Liver
b) Lung
c) Kidney
d) Spleen
4) HCl and pepsin secretion in ruminants is done by
a) Rumen
b) Reticulum
c) Omasum
d) Abomasum
5) Increase in one hormone level in circulation may decrease the affinity of receptor for other hormone through
a) Negative co-operativity
b) Positive co-operativity
c) Permission action
d) Reflex mechanism
6) Animal in which the internal temperature varies with external temperature are called as
a)Temperature regulators
b) Temperature conformers
c) Heterotherms
d) Endotherms
7) Bulbo-urethral gland is absent in
a) Dog
b) Boar
c) Bull
d) Stallion
8) Split heat is usually observed in
a) Buffalo
b) Bitch
c) Mare
d) Cow
9) Thermoregulation centre is located in
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thalamus
c) Motor cortex
d) Hippocampus
10) Among the following domestic animals, sweating ability is highest in
a) Cattle
b) Horse
c) Sheep
d) Goat
11) Major route of heat loss in cattle during high environmental temperature is by
a) Conduction
b) Convection
c) Radiation
d) Evaporation
12) The deficiency of iron causes which type of anemia
a) Normocytic normochromic anemia
b) Normocytic hypochromic anemia
c) Microcytic hypochromic anemia
d) Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
13) Which of the following VFAs is given with milk replacer for development of ruminal epithelium
a) Caproate
b) Butryate
c) Acetate
d) Propionate
14) Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is enhanced by
a) Secretin
b) Motilin
c) Cholecystokinin
d) Gastrin
15) Sympathetic post-ganglionic neurotransmitter is
a) Nor-epinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Serotonin
d) 5-HT
16) Sertoli cells of testes secrete
a) Inhibin
b) Estrogen
c) Androgen binding protein
d) All of the above
17) Which one of the following circulatory division has the lowest pressure?
a) Capillaries
b) Arteries
c) Veins
d) Arterioles
18) Which segment of the renal tubule is impermeable to water?
a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Thick segment of ascending loop of Henle
c) Collecting duct
d) Thin segment of descending loop of Henle
19) Cardiac output can be represented by the formula
a) Stroke Volume/Pulse rate
b) Stroke Volume – Pulse rate
c) Stroke Volume x Pulse rate
d) Pulse rate/Stroke Volume
20) Which of the following is the function of estrogen hormone
a) Secondary sexual character
b) Mammary gland duct system development
c) Sex hormone
d) All of the above
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Animal Sciences 2.0
Toppers are adjudged based on number of questions attempted correct. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 12.07.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | No. of correct questions |
| 1 | Shahista Sarin | IVRI, Izatnagar | 107 |
| 1 | Subhashree Tripathy | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 107 |
| 2 | Seema Chaurasiya | NDUAT, Ayodhya | 106 |
| 3 | Arun Bansal | LUVAS, Hisar | 103 |
| 4 | Ahi Chaudhary | SDAU, Gujarat | 101 |
| 4 | Prachi Chandrakar | CGKV, Durg | 101 |
| 4 | Diksha Shukla | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 101 |
| 4 | Gaurav Dutta | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 101 |
| 5 | Saniya | SKUAST-Kashmir | 99 |
| 5 | Pankaj Choubey | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 99 |
| 5 | Yash Parsana | NAU, Navsari | 99 |
| 5 | Rudra Narayan | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 99 |
| 6 | Jagritee Singh | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 98 |
| 6 | Anup Sharma | MAFSU, Nagpur | 98 |
| 7 | Kavipriya Jaiswal | IVRI, Izatnagar | 97 |
| 8 | Amir Hijazi | SKUAST-Kashmir | 96 |
| 8 | Rishi Nanda | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 96 |
| 9 | Prabhdeep Singh | SKUAST-Jammu | 95 |
| 9 | Prashant Patel | IVRI, Izatnagar | 95 |
| 10 | Sandeep Singh | SKUAST-Jammu | 94 |
| 10 | Sourav | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 94 |
| 10 | Khushboo | IGKV, Raipur | 94 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
Next Mock Test Schedule: Veterinary Sciences 2.0 – 19.07.2020 (Sunday).
Stay Tuned!
The mock test was developed by
Dr. Harshit Kumar (PhD Scholar, Animal Genetics Div., IVRI)
Dr. Amandeep Singh (VAS, Sheep Husbandry Deptt., J&K Govt.)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].
If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.
For regular updates
Dear sir, can i get how many questions i have answered correctly as the topper’s list is? I have my results as my score/total score.
Dear Abhishek
Pls visit website for seeing list of toppers and answers. Based on your score and answer key you can calculate your correct questions.