Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Animal Sciences 4.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. The wet and dry ratio in a herd should be
A) 90:10
B) 75:25
C) 50:50
D) 40:60
2. Ideal Carbon:Nitrogen ratio of slurry for biogas generation
A) 10:1
B) 20:10
C) 25-30:1
D) 40:1
3. Goat population according to the latest livestock census is
A) 140.5
B) 148.9
C) 145.3
D) 143.2
4. Approximate percent India contributing to the global milk production is
A) 18.6
B) 20.2
C) 16.4
D) 22.1
5. Average calving interval in buffaloes should be less than
A) 310 days
B) 365 days
C) 395 days
D) 420 days
6. Which of the following is the typical feeding habit of goats
A) Grazing
B) Browsing
C) Scavenging
D) Stall feeding
7. Major cost of milk replacer feeding depends upon its _______________________ content
A) Fat
B) Protein
C) Vitamin
D) Both A & B
8. How many animals can be milked by one machine milking unit per hour
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20
9. Pulsation ratio in machine milking for cows
A) 50:50
B) 60:40
C) 75:25
D) 80:20
10. Recently registered breed of cattle from India’s Telangana state
A) Poda Thurpu
B) Dagri
C) Thothu
D) Nari
11. Indigenous germplasm that contributed to the establishment of Vrindavani cows is
A) Gir
B) Ongole
C) Hariana
D) Kankrej
12. Krishi Unnati Mela is a three-day event launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on
A) March 2016
B) April 2016
C) March 2017
D) April 2018
13. India’s first cloned Assamese buffalo male calf was named as
A) Pratham
B) Deepasha
C) Hisar-gaurav
D) Sach-gaurav
14. Which Indian state has the lowest per capita milk availability
A) Manipur
B) Assam
C) Mizoram
D) Nagaland
15. Which of the following is the strain of indigenous Deoni cows?
A) Wannera
B) Shevera
C) Balankya
D) All of the above
16. An application developed by ICAR-NIVEDI to provide early diseases warning is
A) NDF mobile app
B) NIVEDI-LIVEDIS app
C) CIF test mobile app
D) LDF mobile app
17. Temporary engorgement of teat shown by lactating buffaloes prior to estrus is called as……..
A) Dola
B) Doka
C) Phooka Doomdev
D) None of the above
18. Which Indian state has the highest number of pig population as per 20th Livestock Census?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Jharkhand
C) Assam
D) Meghalaya
19. Tentative water footprint requirement per liter of milk production is
A) 900 Ltrs
B) 1024 Ltrs
C) 1100 Ltrs
D) 1200 Ltrs
20. Average biogas produced from one cubic meter of slurry
A) 15 to 0.20 m3
B) 0.25 to 0.5 m3
C) 1.25 to 1.5 m3
D) 2.25 to 2.5 m3
21. Ideal voluntary waiting period after calving in dairy animals
A) 21-30 days
B) 30-45 days
C) 45-60 days
D) 60-75 days
22. The Gestation period of Yak is
A) 6 months
B) 9 months
C) 10 months
D) 12 months
23. New Zealand white breed of rabbit originated in
A) New Zealand
B) Australia
C) England
D) USA
24. Only sheep breed of south India producing fine wool is
A) Bellari
B) Nellore
C) Nilgiri
D) Deccani
25. pH of TRIS extender is
A) Slightly acidic
B) Slightly alkaline
C) Neutral
D) Alkaline
26. ‘Alfa alfa’ fodder is commonly known as
A) Berseem
B) Lucerne
C) Maize
D) Cowpea
27. The Concentration of lysozyme in milk is
A) 0.07 – 0.6
B) 0.2 – 0.4
C) 0.03 – 0.04
D) 0.002 – 0.005
28. Under the temperature conditions that prevail in the manufacture of condensed milk, only __________________ will crystallize.
A) β-lactose anhydride
B) α-lactose hydrate
C) α-lactose anhydride
D) β-lactose hydrate
29. At what temperature soft ice-cream is drawn from the freezer?
A) -2 to -1O C
B) -8 to -7OC
C) -15 to -14O C
D) -21 to -20OC
30. Which of the following proteins acts as a regulatory protein in biosynthesis of lactose in milk?
A) α-lactalbumin
B) β-lactoglobulin
C) αs1-casein
D) αs2-casein
31. In standardized method of paneer manufacturing pressure is applied on individual hoop containing curd to the tune of ____kg/cm2.
A) 0.5
B) 1.0
C) 1.5
D) 2.0
32. What is the optimum pH of coagulation of buffalo milk at 70OC for the manufacture of paneer?
A) 5.20 – 5.25
B) 5.30 – 5.35
C) 5.40 – 5.45
D) 5.50 – 5.55
33. What is the most commonly occurring defect in eggs?
A) Yolk mottling
B) Colourless rot
C) Meat spot
D) Blood spot
34. During storage of shell eggs, the pH of albumen increases at a temperature dependent rate to a maximum value of about
A) 7.7
B) 8.7
C) 9.7
D) 10.7
35. Designer eggs can contain increased concentration of
A) n-3 PUFA
B) Vitamins A and E
C) Phytochemicals
D) All of the above
36. The best recommended pasteurization temperature and time for liquid whole egg is
A) 61 – 62OC for 2.5 min
B) 64 – 65OC for 2.5 min
C) 66 – 67OC for 2.5 min
D) 68 – 69OC for 2.5 min
37. What should be the moisture content of a quality dried salted fish product with an expected shell life of 9–10 months?
A) < 20%
B) 20 – 25%
C) 25 – 30%
D) 30 – 35%
38. ‘Masmin’ is a heavily smoked, hard, dried product prepared out of ________meat by the people of Lakshadweep and Malabar coast of Kerala.
A) Mackerel
B) Tuna
C) Pomfret
D) Oil sardine
39. ‘Marine beef’ is an example of
A) Marinated texturized beef product
B) Texturized fish protein concentrate
C) Type A fish protein concentrate
D) Type B fish protein concentrate
40. During post-mortem inspection, a poultry carcass showing signs of insufficient bleeding is categorized as
A) Passed for human consumption
B) Conditionally passed
C) Partially condemned
D) Totally condemned
41. What is the recommended ideal ramp angle for ascending or descending of pigs in transport vehicle?
A) 20°
B) 30°
C) 40°
D) 50°
42. Which of the following step in slaughter and dressing process of goat is considered as CCP1?
A) Skinning
B) Eviscerating
C) Chilling
D) Transpoting
43. A typical moisture/protein ratio for lean beef trim is:
A) 2.5
B) 3.5
C) 4.5
D) 5.5
44. ‘Shrink bags’ package form is mainly used for packaging of:
A) Frozen red meat
B) Frozen poultry
C) Frozen fish
D) Fresh poultry
45. ‘Whiskers’ in aged beef carcasses are caused by:
A) Aspergillus spp.
B) Cladosporium spp.
C) Penicillium spp.
D) Thamnidium spp.
46. Testicles of lamb used as food are known as
A) Lamb fries
B) Calf fries
C) Both of these
D) None of these
47. Most important kind of chemical spoilage of canned meat is
A) Hydrogen swell
B) Flat sour
C) Flipper
D) Springer
48. Protein degradation in meat can be estimated by determining its
A) Protein number
B) TCA number
C) Tyrosine value
D) TBA value
49. Which lymph node is deeply seated in the round of beef?.
A) Deep inguinal
B) Ischiatic
C) Precrural
D) Popliteal
50. Removal of impurities present in raw wool is called as
A) Scouring
B) Carding
C) Spinning
D) None of these
51. The willingness to make personal sacrifices through long hours and loss of leisure time is called
A) Clarity
B) Commitment
C) Forgiveness
D) Sacrifice
52. Farming first is a _______________ coalition for sustainable agricultural development.
A) Global
B) National
C) Village level
D) Regional
53. The idea and actions that explain how a firm will make its profits refer to …….
A) Mission
B) Goal
C) Objective
D) Strategy
54. The ‘New Extensionist’ Learning Kit comprises …… modules.
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
55. The nodal agency/agencies for implementation of interest subvention in Kisan Credit Card scheme is/are
A) Loan lending institutions
B) RBI and NABARD
C) Public sector banks
D) PSB and RRB
56. Ration balancing programme is initiated by ________________ to educate the farmers on balanced feeding of their dairy animals.
A) NDRI
B) IVRI
C) NDDB
D) NIANP
57. In ____________________ the aim was to eradicate poverty with the logo of “Garibi Hatao”
A) TRYSEM
B) NREP
C) SGSY
D) IRDP
58. What is best method to select a lay leader in the village
A) Election
B) Selection
C) Sociometry
D) Self-designated questionnaire
59. The first Farm Field Schools (FFSs) were designed and managed by
A) ILRI
B) FAO
C) OIE
D) IFPRI
60. Participatory Technology Development (PTD) is led by
A) Extension agents
B) Scientists
C) Local leaders
D) Farmers
61. The attraction of mass media to extension services is the
A) High speed and high cost
B) High speed and low cost
C) Moderate speed and moderate cost
D) Low speed and low cost
62. According to World Bank (2017), one in five people in developing regions lived below the international poverty line of ____________ per person per day in 2013
A) USD 1.25
B) USD 1.90
C) USD 2.90
D) USD 2.00
63. Concept of extension centres i.e., Veterinary University Training and Research Centre (VUTRC) followed in Rajasthan is already adopted by
A) SVVU
B) GADVASU
C) RIVER
D) TANUVAS
64. Entrepreneurs select a _____________ risk situation
A) High
B) Moderate
C) Low
D) None of the above
65. The new Model Act titled “The State/UT Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (Promotion & Facilitation) Act, 2017 declared whole ____________________ as one unified market area.
A) Nation
B) Region
C) State/UT
D) District
66. Non-random association of alleles at two or more loci in a general population is referred to as
A) Disassortative mating
B) Assortative mating
C) Linkage disequilibrium
D) Founder effect
67. The gradual reduction in genetic diversity results when population is descended from small no. of colonizing ancestors
A) Wahlund effect
B) Founder effect
C) Bottleneck effect
D) Sanders effect
68. Modified dihybrid cross ratio for duplicate dominant epistasis
A) 12:3:1
B)15:1
C)13:3
D)9:6:1
69. What happens when closely related parents have children with traits that negatively influence their fitness largely due to homozygosity
A) Hybrid vigor
B) Imprinting
C) Inbreeding depression
D) All of the above are correct
70. Three bases which decide the sequence of polypeptide chain and leads to translation is known as
A) Codon
B) Nonsense sequence
C) Gene pool
D) Complimentary base pairs
71. Avikalin strain has been evolved from crossing which of the following breeds through half-bred base intermating
A) Rambouillet x Malpura
B)Bhakarwal x Malpura
C) Chokla x Marino
D)Marino x Nellore
72. Response to selection increases with increase in
A) Selection differential
B) Heritability
C) Both A and B
D) Homozygosity
73. Which of the following selection method is most effectively being used in Open Nucleus Breeding system
A) Sib selection
B) Progeny testing
C) Pedigree selection
D) all of the above
74. Three different human populations have the following MN blood group frequencies
MM MN NN
pop 1 0.2 0.2 0.6
pop 2 0.64 0.32 0.04
pop 3 0.81 0.18 0.01
The populations in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
75. Who deciphered the nature of genetic code?
A) Watson & Crick
B) Nirenberg & Khorana
C) Sutten & Boveri
D)Jacob & Monad
76. Synapsis occurs in which of the following stage of cell cycle
A) Leptonene
B) Zygotene
C) Pachytene
D) Diplotene
77. The genic balance theory of sex determination is given by
A) Swammerdam
B) R.C. Punnet
C) Calvin B . Bridge
D) Laplace
78. If parental genes are proportionately more than 50% in offspring’s then
A) Recombination more than 50%
B) Recombination = 50%
C) Recombination less than 50%
D) Recombination will not take place
79. Frequency of heterozygous is
A) 2q/1+q
B) 2q/1-q
C) 1+q/2q
D) 1-q/1+q
80. Fecundity gene is associated with which of the following breeds
A) Garole
B) Kendrapada
C) A and B both
D) Muzaffarnagari
81. The incubation period for Muscovy duck is
A) 20-21 days
B) 32-35 days
C) 19 days
D) 40 days
82. Which Pigment responsible for bluish green shell colour
A) Oocyan
B) Ooporphyrin
C) Cryptoxanthin
D) Leutin
83. Guinea – fowls are seasonal breeders and breed from
A) January to February
B) October to December
C) March to September
D) None of the above
84. The reducing sugar, glucose present in the whole egg which can actively react with proteins during hot processing is called
A) Drying
B) Maillard reaction
C) Freezing
D) None of the above
85. Sportsman posture is a characteristics symptom of
A) Marek’s disease
B) Ranikhet disease
C) Mycoplasma iowae infection
D) All the above
86. A normal eggshell will have
A) 100 pores
B) 1000 to1500 pores
C) 500 to 1000 pores
D) 8,000 to 10,000 pores
87. How many female chicks are required for conducting random sample test for layers
A) 140
B) 340
C) 240
D) 440
88. Individual observations in a group has a tendency to be very near to a particular value called
A) Central tendency
B) Measures of central tendency
C) Measures of deviation
D) deviation
89. A sample is randomly drawn from a population:
A) To reduce the study to a manageable size.
B) To ensure that the full range of possibilities is included.
C) To obtain ‘normal’ animals.
D) To obtain a representative group.
90. A study based on complete enumeration of data is known as
A) Sample survey
B) Pilot survey
C) Census survey
D) None of the above
91. More metabolic water is obtained from the metabolism of fat than from either protein or carbohydrate because:
A) Animals drink more when eating fat
B) More cofactors are reduced when fat is metabolized
C) Fat is heavier than either protein or carbohydrate
D) All of the above
92. Osmoreceptors are located at
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Medulla oblongata
D) All of the above
93. Ammonia is converted to uric acid in birds in _______________
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
94. A Condition where the cells are unable to use the oxygen that is supplied is called
A) Anemic hypoxia
B) Ischemic hypoxia
C) Histotoxic hypoxia
D) All of the above
95. Which factor stimulates secretion of oxytocin?
A) Milk letdown
B) Stretch of the cervix during parturition
C) Melatonin
D) All of the above
96. The function of luteinizing hormone in the male is to
A) Stimulate the production of estrogen
B) Stimulate spermatogenesis
C) Stimulate the production of testosterone
D) All of the above
97. __________________ temperature is claimed to be a best indicator of body temperature.
A) Rectum
B) Rumen
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Skin
98. Hypervolemia detected in left atrium that resulted from increased Na+ intake. How it will return to normal?
A) Activation of RAAS
B) Release of ANP
C) Release of ADH
D) All of the above
99. Abundant secretion of mucus in urinary system of the horse is due to:
A) Reduces friction for passage of urine
B) Carry carbonates and phosphates
C) Prevents irritation from highly alkaline urine
D) All of the above
100. ______________________ would obstruct urine flow when it becomes enlarged?
A) Bulbourethral glands
B) Ampulla of vas deference
C) Vesicular glands
D) Prostate gland
101. As per BIS (2007), the salt (NaCl) requirement in poultry feed is ________%
A) 0.7
B) 0.5
C) 0.25
D) 1.0
102. Oil content in solvent extracted cake is _______________ than expeller pressed cake.
A) More
B) Less
C) Same
D) None of these
103. Cannibalism and feather picking is common in poultry fed ________________________free diet
A) Fat
B) Crude fibre
C) Moisture
D) Crude protein
104. Which of the following feeding system is practiced in commercial broiler chicken
A) Controlled feeding
B) Phase feeding
C) Ad-lib feeding
D) Skip-a-day
105. The biological availability of phosphorus from cereal grain is less due to presence of
A) Phosphric acid
B) Phytate
C) Phytase
D) Calcium
106. Cotton seed cake contains _____________________ as anti-nutritional factor
A) Linamarin
B) Mimosine
C) Gossypol
D) Saponin
107. Loss of nutrients which occur in hay making in rainy seasons is called
A)Leaching
B) Bleaching
C) Shattering
D) Fermentation
108. RDP and UDP is the measurement of ____________________ quality in ruminants.
A) Protein
B) Fat
C) CHO
D) Minerals
109. Which vitamin is also known as animal protein factor?
A) Thiamin
B) Cyanocobalamine
C) Biotin
D) Choline
110. Curled toe paralysis is caused due to deficiency of
A) Pantothenic acid
B) Cyanocobalamine
C) Riboflavin
D) Biotin
111. Antirachitic factor is
A) Vitamin K
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorus
D) Vitamin D
112. In poultry, deficiency of _______________________causes perosis/slipped tendon.
A) Manganese
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorous
D) Molybdenum
113. The Microbial population of rumen is controlled by
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) All of the above
114. Urea toxicity can be treated by
A) 5% acetic acid
B) 10% acetic acid
C) Drenching cold water
D) Both B & C
115. Whole grain feeding system in poultry is also known as
A) Cafeteria
B) Ad-libitum
C) Free choice feeding system
D) All the above
116. In Pearson square method of ration formulation, a major consideration is given to
A) Proteins only
B) Carbohydrates only
C) Vitamin & minerals
D) All
117. Fermented hay is also known as
A) Brown hay
B) Mow- burnt hay
C) Both
D) None
118. Hay is rich source of
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin E
119. Brown colour of silage is due to
A) Chrophylll
B) Lactic acid
C) Butryic acid
D) Phaeophytin
120. The protein digestibility of paddy straw is approximately
A) 0%
B) 0.2%
C) 0.5%
D) 2.0%
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Animal Sciences 4.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 09.08.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | No. of correct questions |
| 1 | Gaurav Dutta | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 92 |
| 2 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 90 |
| 3 | Sakthi SP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 89 |
| 4 | Manoj Sharma | SKUAST-Jammu | 87 |
| 5 | Ayushi Singh | GBPUAT, Pantnagar | 81 |
| 5 | Ankit Kachchhi | JAU, Gujarat | 81 |
| 6 | Prachi Chandrakar | CGKV, Durg | 80 |
| 7 | Prashant Patel | IVRI, Izatnagar | 79 |
| 7 | Yash Kansagara | JAU, Gujarat | 79 |
| 8 | Swostik Mohanty | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 78 |
| 8 | Yash Parsana | NAU, Gujarat | 78 |
| 8 | Mansi | SKUAST-Jammu | 78 |
| 9 | Parul Singh | IVRI, Izatnagar | 76 |
| 9 | Nisha Singh | BHU, Varanasi | 76 |
| 9 | Jagritee Singh | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 76 |
| 10 | Pooja Singh | SHUATS, Prayagraj | 75 |
| 10 | Rishi Nanda | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 75 |
| 10 | Diksha Shukla | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 75 |
| 10 | Anup Sharma | MAFSU, Nagpur | 75 |
| 10 | Jayshree Jakhar | RAJUVAS, Bikaner | 75 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. S.B. Kawitkar
(Assoc. Prof., ANN, MAFSU, Nagpur)
Dr. Jaydip Rokade
(Scientist, Poultry, ICAR-CARI, Izatnagar)
Dr. K.S. Rathod
(Asst. Prof., LPT, MAFSU, Nagpur)
Dr. M.S. Kannadhasan
(Asst. Prof., VAE, TANUVAS, Chennai)
Dr. Pratik R. Wankhede
(PhD Scholar, LPM, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Shiwaji Wagh
(PhD Scholar, AGB, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Aditya Deshpande
(PhD Scholar, Physiology, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
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