Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Animal Sciences 5.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1) What is the number of individuals that an idealized population would need to have in order for some specified quantity of interest to be the same in the idealized population as in the real population called?

A) Effective population size

B) Population size

C) Genetic size

D) Population dynamic

 

2) In population genetics, the _________________________ is a reduction of heterozygosity (that is when an organism has two different alleles at a locus) in a population caused by subpopulation structure

A) Wahlund effect 

B) Founder effect

C) Bottleneck effect

D) Equilibrium effect

 

3) In two tailed distribution, critical region of only one side is 3%, then acceptance region will be of ____________%

A) 97

B) 94

C) 98.5

D) 93

 

4) In RBD which of the following principle of experimental design is not used?

A) Randomization

B) Replication

C) Local Control

D) All are followed

 

5) Identify the Curve

A) 1= negatively skewed, leptokurtic 2= positively skewed, mesokurtic 3= positively skewed, platykurtic

B) 1= positively skewed, platykurtic 2= Normal Distribution 3= positively skewed, mesokurtic

C) 1= negatively skewed, platykurtic 2=Normal Distribution 3= positively skewed, platykurtic

D) None of the above

 

6) The sum of deviations for each observation taken from arithmetic mean is

A) 0

B) 1

C) Infinity

D) Positive value

 

7) The phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 is observed in which of the following phenomenon?

A) Dominance

B) Codominance

C) Recessiveness

D) Lethal gene

 

8) Preferential segregation of particular genes occurs in

A) Genetic disequilibrium

B) Meiotic drive

C) Semi dominance

D) All of the above

 

9) When the variability in expression of a given gene is that the presence of the gene does not always result in detectable phenotypic effect is known as

A) Variable expressivity

B) Incomplete penetrance

C) Gene interaction

D) Complete dominance

 

10) Coat colour in rabbits and blood groups are classical examples of which of the following phenomenon?

A) Multiple alleles

B) Penetrance

C) Expressivity

D) Epistasis

 

11) Repeatability sets the upper limit of

A) Narrow sense heritability

B) Broad sense heritability

C) Regression

D) Both A and B

 

12) The genic balance theory of sex determination is given by

A) Swammerdam

B) Calvin B. Bridge

C) R.C. Punnet

D) Laplace

13) The ratio of X chromosomes to Autosomes (A) is 1X/2A. What would be the resultant sex?

A) Male

B) Female

C) Metafemale

D) Intersex

 

14) If parental genes are proportionately more than 50% in offspring’s then

A) Recombination <50%

B) Recombination >50%

C) Recombination =50%

D) Recombination will not take place

 

15) The contribution of offspring to the next generation is called

A) Fitness

B) Adaptive value

C) Selective value

D) All of the above

 

16) In the second generation, hybrid vigor will be

A) Same as the first

B) Doubled the first

C) Half of the first

D) None of the above

 

17) If coefficient of selection is 0.20 the fitness would be

A) 0.80

B) 0.20

C) 0.75

D) 1.0

 

18) Hariana is which type of a breed?

A) Dual purpose

B) Milch purpose

C) Drought purpose

D) None of the above

 

19) Response to selection depends upon

A) Heritability of a trait

B) Selection differential

C) Generation interval

D) All of the above

 

20) When a particular gene affects more than one characters it is known as

A) Pleiotropic effect

B) Penetrance effect

C) Expressivity

D) Epistasis

 

21) In ONBS gene flow occurs in two ways which method is most effective in gaining genetic response giving due attention to generation interval

A) Sib selection

B) Progeny testing

C) Pedigree selection

D) All of the above

 

22) Correlation between breeding value and phenotypic value is equal to square root of

A) Repeatability

B) Heritability

C) Regression

D) All of the above

 

23) Response to selection changes

A) Gene frequency only

B) Population mean

C) Gene and genotype frequency

D) Both B and C

 

24) When response to selection has ceased, the population is said to be at

A) Zero response

B) Selection limit

C) Response limit

D) No response

 

25) Removal of impurities in raw wool is called

A) Mulling

B) Crutching

C) Pouring

D) Scouring

 

26) Milk mirror refers to

A) Mammary veins

B) Mammary arteries

C) Space just ahead of udder

D) Space just above udder between buttocks

 

27) Anti-cow kicker is fitted onto

A) Achilles tendon

B) Ligamentum nuchae

C) Udder ligaments

D) Suspensory ligaments

 

28) Age of eruption of permanent corners in sheep is

A) 10-20months

B) 20-30months

C) 30-40months

D) 40-50months

 

29) Age of the cow increases, milk protein, fat and SNF ________________

A) Increase

B) Decrease

C) Remain constant

D) Are not related

 

30) Santa Gertrudis breed was evolved in America using

A) Ongole

B) Gir

C) Sahiwal

D) Red Sindhi

 

31) Duration of oestrus in goats is

A) 12-18hrs

B) 18-24hrs

C) 24-30hrs

D) 18-36hrs

 

32) Kids may be castrated at an age of

A) 2-4weeks

B) 6-12weeks

C) 14-16weeks

D) 18-20weeks

 

33) Colostrum must be provided within _______________ of birth for providing maximum immunity

A) 30 minutes

B) 45 minutes

C) 60 minutes

D) 90 minutes

 

34) DCP content in finisher ration for kids is

A) 4-6%

B) 6-8%

C) 2.5-3.5%

D) 5-7%

 

35) First mating in does should take place at

A) 12-15months

B) 18-23months

C) 15-20months

D) 20-22months

 

36) DCP content in buck ration is

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 10

 

37) The zoonotic family of sheep is

A) Ovis

B) Bovidae

C) Caprini

D) Aries

 

38) Time of ovulation in sheep is

A) 12hrs before end of estrus

B) 12hrs after end of estrus

C) 24hrs before end of estrus

D) 24hrs after end of estrus

 

39) Crossbred pig developed by ICAR-IVRI is

A) Rani

B) Asha

C) Landly

D) HD-K75

 

40) Age at puberty in gilts is

A) 6-7months

B) 9-10months

C) 11-12months

D) 8-9months

 

41) Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in

A) 1960

B) 1970

C) 1972

D) 1975

 

42) Standing space is arranged at an angle of 45 degree in which type of milking parlour?

A) Tandem

B) Herring bone

C) Rotatory

D) Walk-through

 

43) Ideal BCS at drying off on 5 points scale is

A) 3.5

B) 3.5-4

C) 3.25-3.25

D) 3.25-3.75

 

44) Tentative load carrying capacity of a working bullock is

A) 5% of BW

B) 10% of BW

C) 15% of BW

D) 20% of BW

 

45) As per 2019 Livestock Census, Horse & Ponies population in million was

A) 0.62

B) 0.34

C) 0.54

D) 1.14

 

46) Maximum high yielding animals are found in which agro-ecological zone?

A) Upper-gangetic

B) Middle-gangetic

C) Trans-gangetic

D) Lower-gangetic

 

47) National Institute for Animal Health is located at

A) Bareilly

B) Motihari

C) Baghpat

D) Meerut

 

48) National Institute of Animal Welfare is situated at

A) Modipuram, Meerut

B) Motihari

C) Vallabhgarh

D) Farah, Mathura

 

49) Royal and most prevalent breed of horse in India is

A) Kathiawari

B) Marwari

C) Kacchi-sindhi

D) Spiti

 

50) Which Anti-nutritional factor is present in Buffel grass?

A) Nitrate

B) Oxalates

C) Cynogens

D) Saponin

 

51) Sweet and neutral amino acid is

A) Leucine

B) Lysine

C) Valine

D) Proline

 

52) Which amino acid is diamino-monocarboxylic?

A) Glycine

B) Tyrosine

C) Arginine

D) Methionine

 

53) How much water loss through respiration and evaporation through oxidation of 1 g of protein?

A) 2.12 g

B) 1.88 g

C) 2.44 g

D) 2.85 g

 

54) Vitamin M is alternative name for

A) Biotin

B) Choline

C) Folic acid

D) Pyridoxine

 

55) Coenzyme R is alternative name for

A) Biotin

B) Choline

C) Folic acid

D) Pyridoxine

 

56) Which of the following enzyme does not require conversion into its coenzyme derivative in order to function in body?

A) Vit. H

B) Vit. M

C) Vit. A

D) Vit. C

 

57) Niacin can be synthesized from tryptophan except in?

A) Dogs

B) Cats

C) Mice

D) Piglets

 

58) Which of the following may be transported across the gastro-intestinal wall by specific carrier mechanism?

A) Riboflavin

B) Niacin

C) Pantothenic acid

D) Ascorbic acid

 

59) Which of the following has Acyl carrier protein as prosthetic group?

A) Folic acid

B) Pantothenic acid

C) Pyridoxin

D) Biotin

 

60) One IU of Vitamin A equal to

A) 0.302 ug retinyl acetate

B) 0.344 ug retinyl acetate

C) 0.250 ug retinyl acetate

D) 0.375 ug retinyl acetate

 

61) In swine conversion 1mg of beta carotene equal to?

A) 400 IU Vit. A

B) 555 IU Vit. A

C) 280 IU Vit. A

D) 344 IU Vit. A

 

62) Which is tannin degrading bacteria?

A) Fibrobactor succinogenes

B) Bacteroids ruminocola

C) Streptococcus bovis

D) Ruminococcus albus

 

63) On high sugar and lush green fodder which of following rumen micro-organism number increases?

A) Entodinium spp.

B) Polypastron spp.

C) Isotricha spp.

D) Butyrivibrio spp.

 

64) Energy requirement of maintenance in dog by NRC (2006)

A) 118 kcal X W^0.70.5

B) 128 kcal X W^0.75

C) 132 kcal X W^0.75

D) 140 kcal X W^0.75

 

65) Order of the efficiency of conversion of Tryptophan to Niacin?

A) Pig>Chicken>Duck>Cat

B) Cat>Chicken>Duck>Pig

C) Chicken>Pig>Duck>Cat

D) Duck>Chicken>Pig>Cat

 

66) DCP percent is highest for?

A) Lucerne hay

B) Berseem hay

C) Oat hay

D) Wheat straw

 

67) Protease activity in rumen is highest for?

A) Bacteria

B) Protozoa

C) Fungi

D) Bacteriophage

 

68) What is the crude protein (%) in untreated and treated wheat straw with ammonia?

A) 5.13 & 20.34

B) 4.78 & 18.45

C) 2.59 & 10.37

D) 6.45 & 16.32

 

69) According to CARI Izatnagar, maximum permissible level of Aflatoxin in feeds of layer birds should be

A) 300ppb

B) 900 ppb

C) 740 ppb

D) 400 ppb

 

70) ‘Buttons’in sweetened condensed milk is caused by?

A) Torula lacto-condensi

B) Torula globula

C) Aspergillus repens

D) Aspergillus flavus

 

71) In cheese making, standardization is carried out to adjust the casein/fat ratio in cheese milk to

A) 0.48–0.50

B) 0.58–0.60

C) 0.68–0.70

D) 0.78–0.80

 

72) Free fatty acid (as % oleic acid) content of AGMARK Red Label ghee is not more than

A) 1.4%

B) 2.4%

C) 3.4%

D) 4.4%

 

73) Which of the following substrate(s) act as precursor of diacetyl and aceto in biosynthesis by starter culture?

A) Lactose alone

B) Mixture of lactose and phosphate

C) Mixture of lactose and citrate

D) Phosphate alone

 

74) Under the existing trade practices, only one type of khoa is marketed whereas the manufacturers themselves use the other two varieties. Which type of khoa is marketed?

A) Pindi

B) Dhap

C) Danedar

D) None of these

 

75) As per PFA Rules (1976), what should be the fat content (as percent of the dry matter) of processed cheese?

A) 42

B) 47

C) 52

D) 57

 

76) Black rot type 2 is caused by?

A) Aeromonas liquifaciens

B) Enterobacter spp.

C) Proteus spp.

D) Pseudomonas putida

 

77) Ovalbumin, the predominant protein in albumen is classed as a

A) Glycoprotein

B) Phophoprotein

C) Phosphoglycoprotein

D) Flavoprotein

 

78) Which egg yolk component is primarily altered by freezing subsequently resulting in gelation of egg yolk?

A) Low density lipoprotein

B) High density lipoprotein

C) Lecithin

D) Cephalin

 

79) Which of the following has least resistant to damage caused by physical treatment?

A) Whole egg liquid

B) Egg yolk

C) Egg white

D) Salted/sugared egg liquid

 

80) ‘Pindang’ is an example of

A) Salted dried fish

B) Cured smoked fish

C) Salted boiled fish product

D) Sun-dried fish product

 

81) Surimi is a wet frozen concentrate of ___________________ proteins of fish muscle

A) Sarcoplasmic

B) Myofibrillar

C) Cyto-skeletal

D) Collagen

 

82) As per MFPO (1973) maximum permissible limit of lead in meat products should be

A) 2.5ppm

B) 5.5ppm

C) 7.5ppm

D) 10.5ppm

 

83) Fat should be regarded as rancid when the free fatty acid content exceeds

A) 1%

B) 2%

C) 3%

D) 4%

 

84) Meat is one of the most important source of a vitamin which is not found in vegetable foods. Identify the vitamin.

A) Vitamin–B₁

B) Vitamin–B₂

C) Vitamin–B₆

D) Vitamin–B₁₂

 

85) In a resting muscle the length of sarcomere is about

A) 0.5µm

B) 2.5µm

C) 4.5µm

D) 6.5µm

 

86) One of the most important lactic acid bacteria used for production of fermented sausages is

A) Leuconostoc citrovorum

B) Lactobacillus acidophilus

C) Bifidobacterium bifidus

D) Pediococcus acidilactici

 

87) Not only the heme iron in muscle foods more highly bioavailable than non-heme iron, but it also increases the bioavailability of non-heme iron in foods that are eaten with meat. This phenomenon has been referred to as

A) Heme iron factor

B) Non-heme iron factor

C) Magic factor

D) Meat factor

 

88) What are the four major factors that determine the demand of meat foods?

A) Availability, price, source of meat and processing method

B) Variety, convenience, health and price

C) Convenience, source of meat, variety and availability

D) Processing method, convenience, variety and availability

 

89) Cooked testicles of calf, lamb and pigs are commonly known as

A) Rocky Mountain oysters

B) Prairie oysters

C) Calf fries

D) All of the above

 

90) The method of choice for long term preservation of meat is

A) Chilling

B) Freezing

C) Curing

D) Smoking

 

91) Which of the following is regional meat product of Himachal Pradesh?

A) Rista

B) Nihari

C) Pork pickle

D) Rapka

 

92) The ME level per kg rice bran oil is

A) 5000 Kcal

B) 2500 Kcal

C) 7500 Kcal

D) 6000 Kcal

 

93) Which of the following is used as pellet binder?

A) Activated charcoal

B) HSCAS

C) Guar gum

D) MOS

 

94) Sportsman posture is a characteristics symptom of

A) Marek’s disease

B) Ranikhet disease

C) Mycoplasma iowae infection

D) All the above

 

95) Chalky white diarrhoea in newly hatched chicks is a clinical symptom of

A) Avian encephalomyelitis

B) Infectious Bronchitis

C) Salmonella pullorum

D) All the above

 

96) Name of day old chick feather

A) Dawn feather

B) Down feather

C) Chick feather

D) Baby feather

 

97) Crude protein present in Japanese quail starter is

A) 24-26%

B) 20-22%

C) 16-18%

D) 14-16%

 

98) Severe bluish green discoloration of yolk is due to feeding of

A) Alfalfa meal

B) Soya meal

C) Cotton seed meal

D) None of the above

 

99) Abdominal as well as uterine contractions are observed in _________________ stage of parturition.

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) All of the above

 

100) During the 2^nd stage of parturition, _________________ gets ruptured first

A) Allantoic sac

B) Amniotic sac

C) Yolk sac

D) Chorionic sac

 

101) In bovines, MRP is done by ____________________

A) Estrogen

B) Interferon-β

C) Interferon-tau

D) Estriol

 

102) In ___________________________ placentation, all the three layers of the maternal tissues are lost, but the three layers of the foetal structures are left.

A) Haemochorial

B) Epitheliochorial

C) Synepitheliochorial

D) Zonary

 

103) ________________ is required to induce the growth of comb & wattles in roosters.

A) Diethylstilbesterol

B) Testosterone

C) Vasotocin

D) All of the above

 

104) _____________ is precursor of cholesterol.

A) Fatty acids

B) Triglycerides

C) Acetyl CoA

D) All of the above

 

105) PMSG has more ___________ and less _____________ activity.

A) FSH, LH

B) LH, FSH

C) hCG, eCG

D) T3, T4

 

106) The art of getting things done through people is ________________

A) Span of control

B) Administration

C) Accountability

D) Management

 

107) The difference between ‘what is’ and ‘what ought to be’ is ________________

A) Gap

B) Mandate

C) Want

D) Need

 

108) Considering the nature of personnel, extension agents are categorized under _____________ channels

A) Localite

B) Personal localite

C) Impersonal cosmopolite

D) Personal cosmopolite

 

109) Individuals who help the entrepreneur in business activities are called ____________________

A) Role models

B) Moral support networks

C) Professional support networks

D) Informal support networks

 

110) New breed of entrepreneurs operated from within the organization itself is called ………

A) Challengers

B) Intrapreneurs

C) Solo operators

D) Life timers

 

111) Predetermined course of action is called

A) Project

B) Programme

C) Plan of work

D) Plan

 

112) Central Herd Registration Scheme is useful for

A) Identification of superior germplasm

B) Information to breeder societies

C) Propagation of superior genetic stock

D) All of the above

 

113) Danger of over production is more in

A) Mixed farming

B) Large scale farming

C) Diversified farming

D) Small scale farming

 

114) The sixth and seveth plan periods were aptly called the decade of

A) Cattle

B) Buffalo

C) Poultry

D) Sheep

 

115) The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was founded in

A) 1952

B) 1962

C) 1965

D) 1979

 

116) The first step initiated for systematic cattle improvement was

A) Key Village Scheme

B) ICDP

C) IRDP

D) SGSY

 

117) Extension programme should be based on analysis of the past experiences, present situation and ___________________

A) Future solutions

B) Future profit

C) Future needs

D) Future ideas

 

118) Leaving an individual to fight with a tiger without an appropriate weapon is an example of

A) Responsibility

B) Responsibility with power

C) Responsibility without matching authority

D) Authority

 

119) A specialized farm is one in which _________ per cent or more receipts are derived from one source

A) 40

B) 50

C) 10

D) 25

 

120) ___________________ good is a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in micro economics.

A) Allen

B) Giffen

C) Smith

D) Malcolm

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Animal Sciences 5.0

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 23.08.2020.

Rank	Name of the candidate	University	Score
1	Shubham M M	DUVASU, Mathura	313
2	Yash Kansagara	JAU, Gujarat	305
3	Yash Parsana	NAU, Gujarat	300
3	Sakthi SP	TANUVAS, Chennai	300
3	Vijayraghvan DP	TANUVAS, Chennai	300
4	Gaurav Dutta	OUAT, Bhubaneswar	299
5	Rishi Nanda	OUAT, Bhubaneswar	282
6	Parul Singh	IVRI, Izatnagar	279
7	Prashant Patel	IVRI, Izatnagar	275
8	Ayushi Singh	GBPUAT, Pantnagar	274
9	Manoj Sharma	SKUAST-Jammu	271
10	Manupama	TANUVAS, Chennai	270

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. Jaydip Rokade (Scientist, Poultry, ICAR-CARI, Izatnagar)

Dr. K.S. Rathod (Asst. Prof., LPT, MAFSU, Nagpur)

Dr. M.S. Kannadhasan (Asst. Prof., VAE, TANUVAS, Chennai)

Dr. Pratik R. Wankhede (PhD Scholar, LPM, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Shiwaji Wagh (PhD Scholar, AGB, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Aditya Deshpande (PhD Scholar, Physiology, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Akash Rathod (MVSc Scholar, ANN, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

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