Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Animal Sciences 6.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. Gestation length of hamster in days is
A) 17
B) 21
C) 25
D) 29
2. Hoof marking is used for identification of
A) Cattle
B) Goat
C) Horse
D) Pig
3. Raikas and Rabaries are primarily _________ rearing communities
A) Yak
B) Goat
C) Camel
D) Mithun
4. Subabul grass was originated in which of the following country?
A) Mexico
B) USA
C) India
D) Brazil
5. Which sheep breed was designed by a mixture of Garole, Malpura and Patanwadi?
A) Avikalin
B) Avivastra
C) Avimaans
D) Avishaan
6.Green fodder to be ensiled should have DM between
A) 50 to 60%
B) 30 to 35%
C) 20 to 25%
D) 15 to 20%
7. Lucerne hay contains _______ % TDN
A) 10
B) 30
C) 20
D) 50
8. Wind sucking is the vice observed in which of the following species?
A) Pig
B) Cattle
C) Horse
D) None of above
9. In mixed farming income from main enterprise is
A) 49%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%
10. Which of the following is not a healthy practice under milking method?
A) Intermittent milking
B) Knuckling
C) Full hand
D) Stripping
11. Which of the following plays a part in thermoregulation?
A) Hairs
B) Claws
C) Sebaceous gland
D) Meibomian gland
12. Maintenance of lactation is termed as
A) Galactopoiesis
B) Lactogenesis
C) Mammogenesis
D) Lactation
13. The desirable slope of floor in tail to tail system is
A) 1:10
B) 1:30
C) 1:40
D) 1:50
14. Just prior to breeding season, shearing of sheep flock is important because
A) It makes them more active and in many cases will improve their fertility
B) It reduces fertility
C) It enhances feed intake
D) All the above
15. Which disinfectant is commonly used during treatment of navel cord after birth?
A) 90% Phenol
B) 10% Formalin
C) 30% Tincture Iodine
D) None
16. Which of the following is not a pseudo-ruminant?
A) Yak
B) Camel
C) Llama
D) Alpaca
17. Barbari goat breed was originated from
A) India
B) South Africa
C) East Africa
D) Spain
18. Method used for controlling ectoparasites in winter season is
A) Spraying
B) Hand bath
C) Swim bath
D) Dusting
19. Average biogas produced from one cubic meter of slurry is
A) 0.15 to 0.20 m3
B) 0.25 to 0.5 m3
C) 1.25 to 1.5 m3
D) 2.25 to 2.5 m3
20. How many animals can be milked by one machine milking unit per hour?
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20
21. In 2019, state with largest milk share produced around 30.5 MMT of milk is
A) Maharashtra
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) Madhya Pradesh
22. As per recent census, state with largest cattle population around 19.1 million is
A) West Bengal
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Bihar
23. As per recent census, state with largest goat population around 20.8 million is
A) West Bengal
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Rajasthan
D) Bihar
24. In 2019, India’s meat production reached to _________ million tonnes
A) 6.7
B) 7.4
C) 7.7
D) 8.1
25. Crossbred varieties of pig developed at AAU, Guwahati is
A) HD-K75
B) Jahrsuk
C) Asha
D) Landly
26. Pregnancy toxemia is seen in
A) Sheep and Goat
B) Sheep and Rat
C) Sheep and Guinea pig
D) Sheep and Rabbit
27. In ruminants, the ME is calculated from DE by multiplying with
A) 0.99
B) 0.75
C) 0.65
D) 0.82
28. Application of nitrogen fertilizers in excess to forage crops leads to
A) Nitrate poisoning
B) Vitamin D deficiency
C) Both A & B
D) None
29. Efficiency of utilization of dietary calcium for milk production is
A) 20 — 30 %
B) 55 — 65 %
C) 90 — 95 %
D) None
30. Normal level of inclusion of molasses in dairy cattle ration is
A) 3.0%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 10%
31. The efficiency of utilization of D-Lysine in chicken is
A) 95 — 100 %
B) 45 — 50 %
C) 70 — 75 %
D) None of the above
32. One liter of water requires _______ calories for evaporation
A) 520
B) 2200
C) 580
D) 5800
33.Nature of Brunners gland secretion is _______ in nature
A) Acidic
B) Alkaline
C) Neutral
D) None
34. Oesophageal groove reflex is stimulated by
A) ADH
B) Oxytocin
C) ANF
D) HCl
35. Hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) is stimulated by
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Epinephrine
D) ADH
36. Enzymes are
A) Nutritional feed additive
B) Technological feed additive
C) Zootechnological feed additive
D) Sensory feed additives
37. Metal chelators are ________ antioxidants.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) None
38. Maitenance type of roughages contain
A) 3-5% CP
B) 3-5% DCP
C) 7-9% DCP
D) <3% CP
39. Reference amino acid in ideal protein concept is
A) Methionine
B) Lysine
C) Tryptophan
D) Histidine
40. Minimum available phosphorus in Breeder feed should be
A) 0.1%
B) 0.3%
C) 1.5%
D) 0.5%
41. Maximum limit for AIA in compound cattle feed (Type II) is
A) 3%
B) 4%
C) 5%
D) 7%
42. _________% of nitrogen in milk is NPN
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 2%
43. ___________% of NDF in total ration is critical for maintenance of normal milk fat
A) 36%
B) 22%
C) 13%
D) 40%
44. If no green fodder is available to ruminants the concentrate mixture should have Vitamin A at rate of
A) 50000 IU
B) 5000 IU
C) 10000 IU
D) 1000 IU
45. Key Village Scheme started in year
A) 1950
B) 1954
C) 1960
D) 1952
46. For breed adaptation to a given climate rely on
A) Genetic potential
B) Environmental disposition
C) Plane of nutrition
D) All of the above
47. In-vivo gene regulation and down or up regulation of gene is carried out through
A) Methylation
B) Mutagenesis
C) Gene editing
D) All of the above
48. Negative heterosis is mostly observed in
A) Fat %
B) Lactation length
C) Lactation Yield
D) AFC
49. Inbreeding has tangible adverse impact by causing
A) Enhanced homozygosity
B) Truncated heterozygosity
C) Reducing hybrid vigor
D) All of the above
50. Consider a locus with two alleles, A and a. If the frequency of AA is 0.25, what is the frequency of A under Hardy-Weinberg?
A) 0.25
B) 0.35
C) 0.5
D) 0.75
51. Which of the following is NOT an assumption required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) No migration
B) Random mating
C) No selection is occurring
D) Population size must fluctuate
52. Imagine that a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. A certain gene presents as two different alleles, and 49% of the population is homozygous dominant. What percentage of the population is homozygous recessive?
A) 42%
B) 9%
C) 51%
D) Need more information to solve it
53. Which of the following is true of genetic drift?
A) Genetic drift helps reduce the frequency of harmful alleles in a population
B) Genetic drift only occurs in populations at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C) Genetic drift involves the random change of allele frequencies in a population
D) None of these statements are true
54. Term ‘Genetic Slippage’ was propounded by
A) Dickerson
B) Mendel
C) Morgan
D) All of the above
55. The heterosis is predominantly caused by _________________ gene action
A) Additive gene action
B) Overdominance
C) Codominace
D) All of the above
56. The breeding value is _____________the transmitting ability of genotype
A) Equal to
B) Twice
C) Four times
D) Half
57. Which of these measures are used to analyze the central tendency of data?
A) Mean and Normal Distribution
B) Mean, Median and Mode
C) Mode, Alpha and Range
D) Standard Deviation, Range and Mean
58. If a positively skewed distribution has a median of 50, which of the following statement is true?
A) Mean is greater than 50
B) Mean is less than 50
C) Mode is less than 50
D) Both A and C
59. Shweta Kapila cattle breed is having breeding tract in which of the following state?
A) Goa
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Himachal Pradesh
60. PD2 (Vanaraja Female) Line is developed and got recently characterized by NBAGR, which institute has pioneered this work?
A) CARI, Izatnagar
B) IVRI, Izatnagar
C) CPDO, Bangalore
D) PDP, Hyderabad
61. Newly characterized breed “MALI” belongs to which species?
A) Cattle
B) Buffalo
C) Goat
D) Pig
62. For the below normal distribution, which of the following option holds true? σ1, σ2 and σ3 represent the standard deviations for curves 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
a) σ1>σ2>σ3
b) σ1< σ2< σ3
c) σ1=σ2=σ3
d) None
63. Which of the following buffalo breed has highest coarse feed conversion potential in India?
A) Surti
B) Murrah
C) Mehsana
D) All of the above
64. Crossing over is a phenomenon that happens during meiosis in the attempt to create genetic diversity. Crossing over typically occurs between which of the following structures?
A) Sister chromatids
B) Tetrads
C) Homologous chromosomes
D) Chromatin
65. ___________________ performed by mating the male with a number of females to produce many progenies in a different environment and over a long time period involving different seasons to nullify the impact of season, management and environment in breeding value estimation.
A) Sib selection
B) Pedigree selection
C) Progeny testing
D) Family selection
66. _________________ describes the accuracy with which early records of an animal’s performance in a particular trait can predict its lifetime performance
A) Heritability
B) Repeatability
C) Genomic selection
D) All of the above
67. Mechanically deboned meat is
A) less prone to oxidative rancidity
B) not at all prone to oxidative rancidity
C) more prone to oxidative rancidity
D) None of above
68. The most common food pathogens are inhibited at an aw of
A) 0.85
B) 0.88
C) 0.91
D) 0.92
69. The minimum radiation doses in Mrad for the radappertizaton of pork is
A) 3
B) 4.7
C) 3.7
D) 5.1
70. Lactobacillus viridiscens produces hydrogen peroxide and oxidizes the meat pigment to produce
A) A red colour
B) A grayish to greenish colour
C) Violet colour
D) A brownish to blackish colour
71. Sanitary quality of food is indicated by
A) Salmonella count
B) Enterococci and Coliform count
C) Lactic acid bacteria count
D) All of the above
72. Hydroscopic properties of lactose are most utilized in
A) Pharmaceutical tablet preparation
B) Seeding of condensed milk
C) Baby food manufacture
D) None of the above
73. The most commonly used film for fresh meat vacuum packages is
A) Polyethylene
B) Polystyrene
C) Polyvinylidene chloride
D) None of these
74. Fresh sausages are mostly sold in
A) Cellulose casings
B) Alginate formulations based casings
C) Natural casings
D) None of these
75. Silica is most commonly used in the processing of plastic packaging materials as
A) Antiblock agent
B) Antioxidant
C) Antioxidant agent
D) Lubricant
76. During curing of poultry products which of the following chemical accelerates the nitrite curing reaction
A) Sodium erythorbate
B) Sodium metabisulphate
C) Sodium ascorbate
D) None
77. The level of diacetyl desired in cultured buttermilk is
A) 5 to 1.0 ppm
B) 5 to 3.5 ppm
C) 5 to 4.5 ppm
D) 5 to 2.5 ppm
78. On commercial scale edible fat is converted into oleo oil and oleo stearin for manufacture of
A) Soap
B) Candle
C) Grease
D) Margarine
79. Which one out of the following egg product has the highest amount of cholesterol (per 100g sample)?
A) Dried whole egg powder
B) Frozen sugared yolk
C) Dried whole egg
D) Fresh yolk
80. The extract release volume of meat is inversely proportional to
A) WHC
B) Glycolysis
C) Fiber diameter
D) Spoilage
81. The food quality standards all over the world are maintained as per the guidelines of
A) APEDA
B) OIE
C) ISO
D) BIS
82. Hydro-peroxides formed during auto-oxidation of fats are
A) Very stable and do not breakup further
B) Very unstable and break up further giving rise to aldehydes, acids or ketones
C) Very stable and breakup further
D) None of above
83. The casein/fat ratio in cheese making should be adjusted to
A) 07
B) 1.0
C) 50
D) 70
84. The correlation in the breeding values among full sibs is
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 1/8
D) None of these
85. The character that is least affected by inbreeding depression
A) Hatchability
B) Body weight
C) Mortality rate
D) Egg production
86. The name of the only gland present in fowl is
A) Uropygeal gland
B) Oil gland
C) Preen gland
D) All the above
87. Black rots in eggs is most commonly caused by
A) Species of Proteus
B) Species of Micrococcus or Bacillus
C) Molds or yeasts
D) All of these
88. Choose the odd one out of the following.The place where CPDO doesn’t exist?
A) Mumbai
B) Bhubaneswar
C) Pune
D) Hessarghatta
89. The Chromosome number (2n) of Cairina moschata is
a) 80
b) 78
c) 82
d) 84
90. The orientation of poultry house at low temperature areas
A) East west direction
B) North South direction
C) Northeast and southwest
D) Any direction
91. Shell pigment at ion occurs at ________ hr before the oviposition
A) 5 hrs
B) 7 hrs
C) 12 hrs
D) 20 hrs
92. EDS-76 caused by which virus of the following
A) Coronavirus
B) Adenovirus
C) Birnavirus
D) None of the above
93. Wabbee gait in poultry is due to the deficiency of
A) Vit D3
B) Vit A
C) Vit E
D) Vit B complex
94. Chicks have tendency to walk on hock due to the deficiency of
A) Thiamine
B) Niacin
C) Riboflavin
D) Biotin
95. Light coloured circular spots around feather follicles and discoloured areas on the surface of skin of preserved meat is due to
A) Freezer burns
B) Poor bleeding procedure
C) Over Scalding
D) Both A and C
96. Which of the following ducks lay blue coloured eggs?
A) Muscovy
B) Rouen
C) Indian Runner
D) White Pekin
97. ASCI is working under the aegis of
A) MAHDF
B) MSDE
C) MANAGE
D) MAFW
98. eNAM networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified ______________ market for agricultural commodities.
A) International
B) National
C) State
D) Regional
99. NIC delivers _______________ centric e-services
A) Administrator
B) Citizen
C) Politician
D) PRI
100. Chairman of APEDA is appointed by
A) Central government
B) APEDA
C) Planning commission/NITI aayog
D) MAFW
101. MANAGE was established in
A) 1985
B) 1986
C) 1987
D) 1988
102. ‘888 principle’ is related to
A) OHP
B) LCD
C) Poster
D) Epidiascope
103. Communication characteristics of a flashcard are
A) Sequence, surprise and storytelling
B) Sequence, suspense and story telling
C) Sequel, sequence and story telling
D) Sequel, sequence and story board
104. The total increase in milk production in India during the period from 2015-2019 is _______% higher than growth in per capita availability of milk.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
105. Pashu Aadhaar contains_______digit UID
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16
106. “Save Vechur” is a conservation programme in
A) Tamilnadu
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Andhra Pradesh
107. Companies focusing on social and environmental concerns as they do on profits are referred to as
A) Single bottom line
B) Double bottom line
C) Triple bottom line
D) Tetra bottom line
108. India’s dairy processing market anticipates an overall growth of approximately ________% in next 5 years
A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20
109. The best measure which is most frequently used for assessing the performance of farm business is
A) Net cash income
B) Net operating income
C) Net farm income
D) Receipts
110. Tax payable is an example of
A) Current liability
B) Deferred liability
C) Equity
D) Long term liability
111. ____________ air sac present in birds is unpaired
A) Abdominal
B) Interclavicular
C) Thoracic
D) Cervical
112. Term Milieu intérieur or interior milieu is coined by
A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
B) Robert Brown
C) Robert Hooke
D) Claude Bernard
113. CCK is secreted by
A) S cell
B) D cell
C) EC cell
D) I cell
114. ________________ is used for blood transfusion
A) EDTA
B) Heparin
C) Sodium citrate
D) Potassium oxalate
115. __________________ of pre-ovulatory follicle converts to large luteal cells after ovulation
A) Theca interna cells
B) Theca externa cells
C) Zona pellucida
D) Granulosa cells
116. Predominant buffer system in plasma is
A) Phosphate buffer
B) Protein buffer system
C) Bicarbonate buffer system
D) Sulphate buffer system
117. Proportion of VFAs (A:P:B) after cellulose fermentation in rumen is
A) 70:15:15
B) 75:15:10
C) 65:15:20
D) 65:20:15
118. Pain receptors are also called as
A) Thermoreceptors
B) Nociceptors
C) Mechanoreceptors
D) Baroreceptors
119. Time of implantation in cow is
A) 30-35 days
B) 40-45 days
C) 50-55 days
D) 20-25 days
120. Highest rouleaux formation is observed in
A) Cattle
B) Horse
C) Dog
D) Pig
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Animal Sciences 6.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 06.09.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | Score |
| 1 | Yash Parsana | NAU, Gujarat | 331 |
| 2 | Shahista Sarin | IVRI, Izatnagar | 321 |
| 2 | Yash Kansagara | JAU, Gujarat | 321 |
| 3 | Gaurav Dutta | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 318 |
| 4 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 305 |
| 4 | Sakthi SP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 305 |
| 5 | Mansi | SKUAST-Jammu | 301 |
| 6 | Mrinalini Singh | IVRI, Izatnagar | 300 |
| 7 | Uma | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 274 |
| 8 | Parul Singh | IVRI, Izatnagar | 273 |
| 8 | Rishi Nanda | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 273 |
| 9 | Ayushi Singh | GBPUAT, Pantnagar | 272 |
| 10 | Dharampal | RAJUVAS, Bikaner | 265 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. Jaydip Rokade (Scientist, Poultry, ICAR-CARI, Izatnagar)
Dr. M.S. Kannadhasan (Asst. Prof., VAE, TANUVAS, Chennai)
Dr. Pratik R. Wankhede (PhD Scholar, LPM, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Pratap Madane (PhD Scholar, LPT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Shiwaji Wagh (PhD Scholar, AGB, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Aditya Deshpande (PhD Scholar, Physiology, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Harpreet Kour (PhD Scholar, VPT, GADVASU, Ludhiana)
Dr. Maheshkumar Tambe (MVSc Scholar, ANN, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
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