Test paper of mock test (ICAR-Veterinary Sciences 2.0) with answers and toppers

Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 2.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1) Stenson’s duct is the duct of

1. Mandibular gland

2. Parotid gland

3. Buccal gland
4. Sublingual

2) Atlanto-axial joint is

1. Ginglymus joint

2. Trochoid joint

3. Condyloid joint
4. Ellipsoidal joint

3) Base of mammary gland is attached to the abdominal wall by means of

1. Stay apparatus

2. Suspensory apparatus

3. Pre pubic tendon
4. Check ligament

4) Ovarian bursa is present in the ovary of

1. Bitch

2. Rabbit
3. Sow
4. Goat

5) In males, inguinal canal is for the passage of

1. Spermatic cord

2. External pudic vessels
3. Mammary artery & vein
4. Ureter

6) Tuft of vulval hairs is a characteristic feature of

1. White heifer disease
2. Ovarian hypoplasia

3. Freemartinism

4. Hermaphrodites

7) Progesterone is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy until

1. 100-120 days

2. 150-200 days

3. 200-250 days
4. 250-270 days

8) Hippomanes are commonly seen in

1. Amnion

2. Allantois

3. Chorio allantois
4. None of the above

9) Active leptospiral infection will have the titre value of above

1. 1:100
2. 1:400
3. 1:600

4. 1:1600

10) Artificial insemination of animals was performed in 1780 by an Italian scientist

1. Roberts
2. Ivanoff

3. Spallanzani

4. Mitchell

11) In bulls, Chlamydophila abortus causes

1. Epididymitis
2. Seminal vesiculitis
3. Testicular degeneration

4. All of the above

12) Solid CO₂ is used for preservation of semen at what temperature?

1. -196^◦C

2. -79^◦C

3. -80^◦C
4. -20^◦C

13) In cattle, the heart is crudely formed and beating by

1. 28^th day of pregnancy
2. 30^th day of pregnancy
3. 32^nd day of pregnancy

4. 22^nd day of pregnancy

14) The quality of semen collected in bulls is better in

1. Massage technique

2. Artificial vaginal method

3. Electro ejaculation method
4. Condom method

15) Prostatic hyperplasia is associated with

1. Excessive testosterone

2. Deficiency of testosterone
3. Excessive estrogen
4. Deficiency of estrogen

16) Balling up is commonly seen is

1. Boar

2. Stallion
3. Bull
4. Ram

17) Clinical illness prevailing for 3 to 14 days is termed as

1. Per-acute

2. Acute

3. Sub-acute
4. Chronic

18) Dog sitting posture in horse is seen in

1. Bilateral hip dislocation
2. Laminitis

3. Acute gastric dilatation

4. All the above

19) Dummy syndrome is characteristic of

1. Large bowel diarrhea
2. Small bowel diarrhea

3. Liver disease

4. Downer cow syndrome

20) Pathognomonic indication of insufficiency of aortic valve

1. Thread pulse
2. Dicrotic pulse
3. Wiry pulse

4. Water hammer pulse

21) Third heart sound is audible normally in

1. Cattle
2. Grey hounds
3. Cat

4. Horse

22) Increased depth and rate of respiration in response to increased carbon dioxide tension

1. Kussmaul respiration

2. Biots respiration
3. Agonal respiration
4. Thoraco-abdominal respiration

23) Suitable method for sterilizing delicate lensed instruments like endoscopes

1. Plasma sterilization

2. Cold chemical sterilization

3. Peracetic acid sterilization
4. Ionizing radiation

24) Monofilament absorbable material

1. Polydioxanone

2. Silk
3. Polyester
4. Polyglycolic acid

25) An interrupted pattern used in intestinal surgery to reduce mucosal eversion

1. Gambee pattern

2. Halstead pattern
3. Lembert pattern
4. Connell pattern

26) A normal surgical level of medium anaesthetic depth would be

1. Stage ❸ plane❸

2. Stage ❸ plane❷

3. Stage ❸ plane❶
4. Stage ❷ plane❸

27) A partial mu agonist and kappa antagonist used in cats and can be given transmucosally on the oral mucus membranes

1. Buprenorphine

2. Butorphanol
3. Nalbupine
4. Tramadol

28) A neuroactive steroid

1. Etomidate

2. Alfaxalone

3. Fentanyl
4. Gabapentin

29) Outward displacement of the eye from its normal position in the orbit is

1. Exophthalmos

2. Proptosis

3. Buphthalmos
4. Endophthalmos

30) How many openings are in the diaphragm?

1. 2
2. 4

3. 3

4. 7

31) Pregnancy protein B is secreted from

1. Ovary

2. Placenta

3. Testes
4. Uterus

32) Serous membrane which covers the uterus

1. Endometrium
2. Myometrium
3. Para metrium

4. Perimetrium

33) Drug causing penile protrusion in boars

1. Droperidol

2. Azaperone

3. Midazolam
4. Acepromazine

34) Double drip contains

1. Ketamine and diazepam
2. Ketamine and midazolam

3. Xylazine and ketamine

4. Xylazine and butorphanol

35) Dose rate of sucralphate in canines

1. 5-10gm orally qid
2. 1-2gm orally qid
3. 2-5gm orally qid

4. 0.5-1gm orally qid

36) Mucus in faeces is commonly observed in

1. Osmotic diarrhea
2. Veruminous diarrhea

3. Large bowel diarrhea

4. Small bowel diarrhea

37) Clay coloured faeces is seen in

1. Obstructive jaundice

2. Hepatic jaundice
3. Haemolytic jaundice
4. All the above

38) Half-life of LH is

1. 45mins

2. 30mins

3. 2 to 3 days
4. 120mins

39) Polyspermy is common in

1. Birds

2. Bovine
3. Canine
4. Ovine

40) Nest making is an important symptom in

1. Cow

2. Dog

3. Sheep
4. Rabbit

41) An increase in kVp setting in X-Rays leads to

1. Increase penetration

2. Decrease penetration
3. Increases density
4. Increases quantity of

42) Osteoperiostitis involving anterior aspect of large metacarpal bone

1. Ring bone

2. Sore-sin

3. Splints
4. Bobba bone

43) Bupivacaine when reaches venous circulation causes

1. Hepatotoxicity
2. Ototoxicity

3. Cardiotoxicity

4. nephrotoxicity

44) Wheat pasture poisoning is also known as

1. Hypomagnesaemic tetany

2. Nutritionl haemoglobinuria
3. Fat cow syndrome
4. Milk fever

45) Baby pig disease is because of

1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hypoproteinemia
3. Hypothermia

4. Hypoglycemia

46) Synsacrum is present in

1. Horse
2. Cattle

3. Fowl

4. Dog

47) Areolae is present in the placenta of

1. Mare
2. Cow

3. Sow

4. Cat

48) Which of the following are universal blood donors in canine

1. DEA 1.1 Negative
2. DEA 1.2 Negative
3. DEA 7 Negative

4. All the above

49) Most reliable test to assess the microbial status of rumen

1. Glucose fermentation test
2. Cellulose digestion test
3. Nitrate reduction

4. Methylene blue reduction time

50) Absolute inability to reproduce is known as

1. Infertility
2. Fertility

3. Sterility

4. Repeat breeder

51) Which of the following specifically acts on adult Heart worms (Dirofilaria immitis)?

1. Ivermectin
2. Diethycarbamazine

3. Thiacetarsamide

4. All of these

52) _____________ are agents which activate tubercle bacillus, most viruses and fungi, but not bacterial spores

1. Low-level disinfectants

2. Intermediate level disinfectants

3. High level disinfectants
4. Very high level disinfectants

53) Pyrantel, broad spectrum anti-helminthic belongs to

1. Imidazothiazoles
2. Milbemycins

3. Tetrahydropyrimidines

4. Pro-benzimidazoles

54) Enteroviruses differ from rhinoviruses mainly in their

1. Type of nucleic acid
2. Size
3. Capsid shape

4. Ability to survive acidic conditions

55)  The time from adsorption of a bacteriophage to release of newly synthesized bacteriophage is generally

1. 1-5 minutes

2. 20-40 minutes

3. 1-4 hours
4. 6-24 hours

56) Ctenocephalidas canis transmits ____________ in dogs?

1. Dipyllidium caninum

2. Ancylostoma caninum
3. Toxocara canis
4. All of these

57) What is the ideal % of hydrogen peroxide as a wound cleaning agent?

1. 2%

2. 3%

3. 5%
4. 5%

58) Ability of diagnostic test to detect in true positive animals is called

1. Sensitivity

2. Specificity
3. Positive predictive value
4. Likelihood ratio

59) ____________ an antidepressant acts by selectively decreasing the reuptake of serotonin

1. Fluoxetine

2. Venlafaxine
3. Selegiline
4. All of these

60) Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons) for many years are most likely:

1. Togaviruses

2. Herpesviruses

3. Enteroviruses
4. Rhinovirus

61) Viruses that contain two complete copies of positive strand RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase are:

1. Toga viruses
2. Rhabdoviruses

3. Retroviruses

4. Reoviruses

62) The drug of choice for MRSA is

1. Rifamycin

2. Vancomycin

3. Penicillin
4. Cefotaxime

63) Botulinum cook is otherwise called as

1. 12-D concept

2. D- value
3. TDV
4. TDT

64) Dark cutting meat is a characteristic feature of

1. Beef

2. Pork
3. Chevon
4. Mutton

65) B. anthracis and B. cereus are differentiated on the basis of

1. Motility
2. Haemolysis
3. Lecithinase activity

4. All of the above

66) The trypsin sensitive protein among the toxins of Clostridium spp is

1. Alpha toxin

2. Beta toxin

3. Gamma toxin
4. Delta toxin

67) Bovine actinomycosis is characterized by

1. Lumpy jaw
2. Wooden tongue
3. Chronic rarefying osteomyelitis

4. Both 1 & 3

 68) The mechanism of action of local anaesthetic is by

1. Membrane stabilization

2. Receptor blockade
3. Prevent release of neurotransmitters
4. All of these

69) Digitoxin/digoxin is obtained from which part of the plant Digitalis purpurea

1. Leaf

2. Flowers
3. Root
4. Sap

70) Which of the following acts as a styptic?

1. Ferrous sulphate

2. Ferric chloride

3. Silver nitrate
4. Zinc sulphate

71) BOD of effluent from cattle slaughter is

1. 1800-3200 mg/l

2. 1500-2000 mg/l
3. 800-1200 mg/l
4. 250-300 mg/l

72) Causative agent of swimming pool granuloma is

1. Mycobacterium balnei

2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Mycobacterium chaloni
4. Mycobacterium avium

73) Heartwater disease of cattle is transmitted by

1. Boophilus
2. Hyalomma
3. Riphicephalus

4. Amblyomma

74) In South Asia, KFD is transmitted by

1. Rhipicephalus appendiculatus

2. Haemaphysalis spinigera

3. Amblyomma variegatum
4. Ixodes ricinus

75) Concept of heterophile antibodies relates to

1. Cross reaction of Brucella abortus with Yesrinia enterocolitica O:9

2. Cross reaction of Brucella abortus with Yesrinia enterocolitica O:19
3. Cross reaction of Brucella abortus with Vibrio parahaemolytica
4. Cross reaction of Brucella abortus with Vibrio cholera

76) The exchange of extracellular molecules that allows microbial cells to detect cell density is called as

1. Chemostat
2. Generation time

3. Quorum sensing

4. Chromosome partitioning

77) Skunk like odour of butter is due to

1. Pseudomonas syncaena
2. Pseudomonas fluorescens

3. Pseudomonas mephitica

4. Pseudomonas fragi

78)  As per de Candolle’s plant group, Boreal forests are described as formation of

1. Megatherms
2. Xerophile
3. Mesotherms

4. Microtherms

 79) Queensland itch in horses is caused by

1. Phlebotomus
2. Simulium

3. Culicoides

4. Tabanus

80) Fluff louse of poultry is

1. Lipeurus
2. Menacanthus

3. Goniocotes

4. Menopon

81) Bacteriophages that can enter into stable, long-term relationships with their hosts are called:

1. Lytic phages
2. Defective phages
3. Virulent phages

4. Temperate phages

82) Adenoviruses are normally associated with these except

1. May cause warts
2. May cause gastroenteritis
3. May cause conjunctivitis

4. May cause genital cancers

 83) Father of Evidence based Medicine is

1. David Sackett

2. Hippocrates
3. Da Vinci
4. John Snow

84) The chief cause of strike in sheep is

1. Larvae of Musca sp.

2. Larvae of Lucilia sp.

3. Larvae of sacrophaga sp.
4. None of these

85) In which year OIE was renamed to World Organization of Animal Health

1. May 2003

2. May 2002
3. April 2007
4. April 2001

86) _______________ is used to sterilize vaccines and sera

1. Vapourized H202

2. Betapropiolactone

3. Ethylene oxide
4. Formaldehyde

87) Nymphal stage of dragon flies act as the intermediate host for

1. Fasciolidae
2. Paramaphistomatidae
3. Schistostomatidae

4. Prosthogonimidae

88) Which of the following is a Leukotriene Antagonist?

1. Zafirlukast

2. Aminophylline
3. Salbutamol
4. Bromohexine

89) Leucine test is used to detect

1. Hypo proteinemia

2. Hyper insulinism

3. Hyper adrenocotricism
4. Hypo thyroidism

90) Developmental stage “Radia” is absent in

1. Fasciolidae

2. Prosthogonimidae

3. Paramaphistomatidae
4. All of these

91) African buffaloes remain as carriers for FMD upto

1. 6 months
2. 3 years

3. 5 years

4. 9 months

92) Self- fertilizing fungi are known as

1. Homotrophic fungi

2. Homothallic fungi

3. Homosporic fungi
4. Homocellular fungi

93) The definitive host for Taenia taenaeformis is

1. Man

2. Cat

3. Dog
4. Horses

94) Largest lymphoid organ in the body

1. Liver
2. Adrenal

3. Spleen

4. Thymus

95) DNA staining is done by

1. Feulgen method

2. Leifson method
3. Gray method
4. Schaeffer-Fulton method

96) Smallest tapeworm of man is

1. Taenia solium
2. Taenia saginata

3. Hymenolepis nana

4. Ascaris lumbricoides

97) Who is known as Father of Veterinary Radiology?

1. C. Roentgen

2. Eberlin

3. Hamster
4. Luis Philip

98) Staphylococcus spp can be categorized by haemolysis on

1. 5% sheep blood agar
2. Ox blood agar
3. Horse blood agar

4. Both 1 & 2

99) Waxing of teat is a typical sign of parturition in

1. Sow
2. Cow

3. Mare

4. Queen

100) Hormones associated with mammary alveoli and ductal growth

1. Progesterone and prolactin
2. Estrogen and prolactin

3. Progesterone and estrogen

4. Estrogen and progesterone

101) Increase in both depth and frequency of breathing is

1. Hypoxemia

2. Hyerpnea

3. Hypoxia
4. Polypnea

102) Which vessel group contains the most blood volume

1. Systemic arteries
2. Systemic arterioles
3. Systemic capillaries

4. Systemic veins

103) Sustentacular cells are also called as

1. Leydig cells
2. Interstitial cells

3. Sertoli cells

4. All the above

104) Paneth cells are absent in

1. Dog
2. Cat
3. Pig

4. All the above

105) The blood-brain barrier is absent in the

1. Spinal cord
2. Choroid plexus
3. Area postrema

4. Both 2 and 3

106) Wiggers diagram indicates

1. Phases of muscle contraction

2. Phases of cardiac cycle

3. Phases of respiratory cycle
4. Phases of carbondioxide transport

107) Hashimoto’s disease is also known as

1. Hypothyroidism
2. Nodular goitre
3. Hyperthyroidism

4. Autoimmune thyroiditis

108) Anaemia and glomerulonephritis are the outcome of the following disease

1. African horse sickness
2. Equine influenza
3. Equine viral Arteritis

4. Swamp fever

109) In which of the following condition, the nutmeg lever is seen

1. Chronic general passive hyperemia

2. Acute general passive hyperemia
3. Acute local passive hyperemia
4. Prehepatic jaundice

110) The phagocytic destruction of red cells by the macrophages occurs primarily in the

1. Liver, Spleen, Bone marrow

2. Only Bone marrow
3. Spleen, Bone marrow, Kidney
4. Spleen, liver and lungs

111) The enzyme system which is source of energy for phagocytosis

1. Succinic dehydrogenase
2. Alkaline phosphatise
3. Glutamic oxidase

4. Myeloperioxidase

112) Sabin Feldman dye test is a serological test for diagnosis

1. Tularensis
2. Blastomycosis
3. Histoplasmosis

4. Toxoplasmosis

113) Rinderpest virus has special affinity for

1. Myeloid tissue and endothelial cells
2. Nervous tissue

3. Lymphoid tissue and epithelial cells

4. Mesenchymal cells

114) Greyish white, cuplike spots on the comb which later becomes wrinkled crust that spreads to face and wattle seen in

1. Mycotic encephalitis
2. Candidiasis

3. Favus

4. Coryza

115) Exudative diathesis in poultry birds is seen due to deficiency of

1. Vitamin A and Vitamin C
2. Vitamin C and Cu

3. Vitamin E and Se

4. Vitamin D and Ca

116) Moderate degree of hypoxia leads to thrush breast condition in heart is a

1. Hyaline change
2. Albuminous degeneration

3. Fatty change

4. Connective tissue hyaline change

117) Blue wing condition is seen in the birds Infected with

1. Chicken anaemia virus

2. Mareks disease
3. IBD
4. CRD

118) Ulcerative stomatitis in cattle seen in

1. Pasteurellosis

2. Rinderpest

3. Cow pox
4. Actinobacillosis

119) Endogenous pyrogens are released by

1. Macrophage
2. Lymphocytes
3. Plasma cells

4. Neutrophils

 120) Degenerative renal lesion is termed as

1. Nephritis
2. Interstitial nephritis

3. Nephrosis

4. Pyelonephritis

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

 

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 2.0

Toppers are adjudged based on the number of right questions attempted. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 19.07.2020.

Rank	Name of the candidate	University	No. of correct questions
1	T Gokul	TANUVAS	95
1	MRS	TANUVAS	95
2	Ahi Chaudhary	SDAU, Gujarat	94
2	Navjot Singh Thakur	CSKHPKV, Palampur	94
2	Sai Simha Reddy	SVVU, Tirupati	94
3	Vijaya Mahantesh	KVAFSU, Bidar	93
3	Isheeta Raina	SKUAST-Jammu	93
4	Nabaneeta	OUAT, Bhubaneswar	92
4	Sahil Gahlian	IVRI, Izatnagar	92
5	Pooja Verma	NDVSU, Jabalpur	91
6	Rashmi	GBPUAT, Pantnagar	90
6	Kavipriya Jayswal	IVRI, Izatnagar	90
7	Shahista Sareen	IVRI, Izatnagar	89
7	Preethi	RIVER, Pondicherry	89
8	Gourav Tevatia	GBPUAT, Pantnagar	88
8	Harsh Jogi	JAU, Gujarat	88
8	Parveen	KVASU, Kerala	88
8	Himanshu Jaiswal	MJFCVAS, Jaipur	88
9	Riya	GADVASU, Ludhiana	86
9	Arjun Shanavas	KVASU, Kerala	86
10	Sreelakshmi	KVASU, Kerala	84
10	Zeelan Javaid	SKUAST-Kashmir	84
10	Misbah Shafi	SKUAST-Kashmir	84

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

Next Mock Test: Animal Sciences 3.0 – 26.07.2020 (Sunday).

Stay Tuned!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, TANUVAS)

Dr. Prapti Parkhe (MVSc Scholar, CSKHPKV)

Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Prutha Deshpande (MVSc Scholar, KVASU)

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

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