Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 3.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. In meningitis, the type of respiration seen is
A) Syncoptic respiration
B) Cheynes-stokes respiration
3) Kussmauls respiration
4) Biots respiration
2. In cyanide poisoning, which type of hypoxia occurs?
A) Stagnant
B) Anaemic
C) Histotoxic
D) All the above
3. Tonometer is used for assessing
A) Pressure
B) Density
C) Volume
D) Ulcer
4. Killing, poisoning and maiming an animal are punishable under
A) Section 429
B) Section 269
C) Section 162
D) Section 420
5. The most common form of bovine ketosis is
A) Wasting form
B) Nervous form
C) Subclinical form
D) All of the above
6. Bipolar vessel sealing system can seal vessels upto diameter of
A) 0.7mm
B) 7mm
C) 0.07mm
D) 70mm
7. Only cephalosporin given once in 14 days interval for soft tissue infections is
A) Cefovecin
B) Cefotetan
C) Ceftazidime
D) Cefquinome
8. Brachycepalic syndrome consists of
A) Stenotic nares
B) Elongated soft palate
C) Everted laryngeal saccule
D) All the above
9. The ideal age for disbudding is
A) One to two weeks
B) Two to three weeks
C) Three to four weeks
D) Above four weeks
10. An accurate, early diagnosis of pregnancy is known as
A) Cyesiognosis
B) Pseudocyesiognosis
C) Both
D) None
11. Which among the following species is a long day breeder?
A) Mare
B) Cow
C) Sheep
D) Pig
12. In which species ovary is less sensitive to exogenous FSH?
A) Cow
B) Sheep
C) Mare
D) All
13. Abortion in case of Tricomonas foetus in cows occurs at which trimester
A) 1st trimester
B) 2nd trimester
C) 3rd trimester
D) All the trimester
14. Lowland abortion or marshland abortion occurs due to
A) Nitrate poisoning
B) Arsenic poisoning
C) Locoweeds
D) Sweet clover
15. Mating of mares at foal heat leads to early embryonic mortality due to
A) Reduce effectiveness of uterine defense mechanism
B) Stress of lactation
C) Incomplete regeneration of the endometrium
D) All of the above
16. Early embryonic mortality occurs in mares affected by contagious equine metritis is due to the presence of
A) Taylorella equigenitalis
B) Brucella
C) Trepanosoma equiperdum
D) Trepanosoma equinum
17. Synchronization of estrous cycle involves
A) Extending the luteal phase
B) Shortening the luteal phase
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
18. Heape performed first successful embryo transfer in 1891 in
A) Rabbit
B) Cat
C) Rat
D) Mice
19. Torsion of uterus uncommon in mare due to
A) Ventrally attached broad ligaments
B) Dorsally attached broad ligament
C) Laterally attached broad ligament
D) Ventro-laterally attached broad ligament
20. Hematic type of fetal mummification is found in
A) Cow
B) Mare
C) Bitch
D) Pig
21. On per rectal palpation crepitation sound is observed in which of the following conditions in cows?
A) Maceration
B) Mummification
C) Hydramnios
D) Hydrallantois
22. The present Director General of WHO is
A) Margret Chan
B) Jose da Silva
C) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
D) Monique Eloit
23. The head quarter of World Organization of Animal Health (OIE) is located at
A) Rome
B) Geneva
C) Paris
D) New Delhi
24. ICMSF stands for
A) Indian Council of Microbiological Safety of Foods.
B) International Commission on Microbiological Specifications for Foods.
C) Indian Commission on Microbiological Specifications for Foods.
D) None of the above.
25. World Zoonoses day is observed on
A) 16 July
B) 05 August
C) 23 January
D) 06 July
26. WHO declared COVID-19 as a Pandemic on
A) March 11, 2020
B) February 11, 2020
C) March 1, 2020
D) January 30, 2020
27. Which biosafety level is used for handling avian influenza virus?
A) Biosafety level I
B) Biosafety level II
C) Biosafety level III
D) Biosafety level IV
28. Cold sterilization means
A) Sterilization at low temperature
B) Sterilization by radiation
C) Sterilization at high temperature
D) Flash pasteurization
29. Echinococcosis is diagnosed by
A) Casoni test
B) Sereni test
C) Anton test
D) All of the above
30. What percentage of emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic in origin?
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 75%
D) 80%
31. Irritant and non-isotonic drug solution are injected by which of the following routes?
A) Intravenous
B) Intramuscular
C) Sub Cutaneous
D) Intraperitoneal
32. Which among the following characteristics of drugs does not favor absorption from the site of drug administration?
A) Small molecular size of drugs
B) Non polar drugs
C) Polar drugs
D) Lipid soluble drugs
33. Thiopental anesthesia is contraindicated in which breed of dog?
A) Boxer
B) Pug
C) Labrador
D) Grey hound
34. Which among the following agents is used as benzodiazepine antagonist?
A) Flumazenil
B) Fipronil
C) Diazepam
D) Pralidoxime
35. An example for NMDA receptor antagonist is
A) Xylazine
B) Diazepam
C) Tremadol
D) Ketamine
36. Digitalis is used as
A) Anti-arrhythmic drug
B) Cardiac glycoside
C) Haemopoietic drug
D) Hepatoprotective drug
37. Which among the following is not an examples of respiratory stimulants?
A) Doxapram
B) Nikethamide
C) Salbutamol
D) Ethamivan
38. Disinfectant of choice during FMD outbreak is
A) 2% NaOH
B) 4% Na2CO3
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
39. Garlic like odour of gastrointestinal contents is suggestive of poisoning with
A) Nitrate
B) HCN
C) Alkali
D) Phosphorus
40.‘Arthropathy’ is one of the major side effects observed with
A) Sulphonamides
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Macrolides
D) Aminoglycosides
41. Primary mechanism of anthelmintic action of albendazole is by
A) Inhibition of GABA channels
B) Interference with cell wall synthesis
C) Inhibition of tubulin formation
D) Inhibition of glucose uptake
42. In which of the following conditions, laryngeal nerve paralysis and roaring is observed in horses?
A) Arsenic poisoning
B) Lead poisoning
C) Mercury poisoning
D) Molybdenum poisoning
43. Death in cyanide poisoning is due to
A) Depletion of neurotransmitters
B) Increased inta-cranial pressure
C) Histotoxic hypoxia
D) Excessive haemorrhage
44. Which of the following is called as macrophages of liver?
A) Histiocytes
B) Kupfer cells
C) Microglia
D) Plasma cells
45. Hybridoma technology was first discovered by?
A) Kohler and Milstein
B) Niels Kaj Jerne
C) Frederick Twort and Felix d’Herelle
D) Louis Pasteur
46. Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct except
A) C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms psuedohyphae when it invades tissue
B) C. albicans causes thrush
C) C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol
D) Impaired cell mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to disease
47. Name the class of immunoglobulin which takes part in hypersensitivity reaction?
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgM
48. Which of the following is used as a solidifying agent for media?
A) Beef extract
B) Peptone
C) Agar
D) Yeast extract
49. The bacteria, used to examine the efficacy of autoclave is?
A) B. polymyxa
B) B. brevis
C) B. stearothermophilus
D) B. megaterium
50. Viruses contain
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) Either DNA or RNA
D) Both DNA and RNA
51. In Gram staining, if some bacteria retain the crystal violet stain after alcohol treatment. Then the bacteria are?
A) Gram positive
B) Gram negative
C) Procedure is incomplete to answer this question
D) None
52. Lipopysaccharide is found in cell wall of
A) Gram positive bacteria
B) Gram negative bacteria
C) Both
D) Fungi
53. Which one of the avian digestive tract structures secretes HCl and pepsinogen?
A) Crop
B) Ventriculus
C) Proventriculus
D) Ceca
54. Which among the following is true about the bursa of Fabricius?
A) It is a part of the small intestine
B) It is associated with cellular immunity
C) It is associated with humoral immunity
D) It produces erythrocytes
55. What is the mean hydrostatic pressure in the systemic capillaries?
A) 15 mmHg
B) 25 mmHg
C) 30 mmHg
D) 50 mmHg
56. What structure in the intercalated disc allows the free diffusion of ions?
A) T tubules
B) Desmosomes
C) Fascia adherens
D) Gap junctions
57. A nerve fiber is made up of
A) An axon only
B) An axon and Schwann cells
C) An axon and endoneurium
D) An axon and epineurium
58. Basophilic stippling is noticed in
A) Lead poisoning
B) Phenothizine poisoning
C) Thyrotoxicosis
D) Thrichimosis
59. In which of the following conditions, the formation of hyaline membrane occurs?
A) Interstistial pneumonia
B) Granulomatous pneumonia
C) Suppurative pneumonia
D) Aspiratory pneumonia
60. Parasite associated with nodules in esophagus and aorta in dog is
A) Ancylostoma
B) Spirocerca lupi
C) Toxocaracanis
D) Dirofilariaimmitis
61. Which type of anemia results due to non-functional bone marrow?
A) Haemolytic
B) Haemorrhagic
C) Aplastic
D) None of these
62. Hygroma of knee in bovines is observed in
A) Leptospirosis
B) Listeriosis
C) Both A & B
D) Brucellosis
63. Coccidiosis in Goat is caused by
A) I. neorivolta
B) I. burrowsi
C) E. ellipsoidalis
D) None of these
64. Which type of giant cells are formed in tuberculosis?
A) Tumor
B) Tuton
C) Langhan’s
D) Both B & C
65. Enlargement and mottling of spleen in birds is seen in
A) ILT
B) Infectious bronchitis
C) Spirochaetosis
D) E. coli infections
66. Pneumoencephalitis is a feature of
A) Rabies
B) Spongiform encephalitis
C) Ranikhet disease
D) Tetanus
67. Staining method is used for diagnosis of Anaplsmosis is
A) Gram’s stain
B) Lactophenol cotton blue
C) Acid fast Stain
D) Leishman’s stain
68. In the structures of corpora amylacae, the type of degeneration seen is
A) Fatty changes
B) Hydropic degeneration
C) Hyaline degeneration
D) Cloudy swelling
69. Increased number of leukocytes in CSF is termed as
A) Leukocytosis
B) Lymphocytosis
C) Pleocytosis
D) None of the above
70. In hog cholera, button shaped ulcers are especially seen in _____________ of large intestine.
A) Caecum
B) Colon
C) Rectum
D) None of the above
71. Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by acting along with
A) Antithrombin III
B) Factor III
C) Factor XIII
D) Factor I
72. The erythrocytic enzyme which facilitates carbon dioxide transport in blood is
A) Carboxydehydrogenase
B) Carboxyhydrogenase
C) Carbonic anhydrase
D) Carboxylase
73. The immunoglobulin that does not cross placental barrier is
A) Ig A
B) Ig D
C) Ig M
D) Ig G
74. Increase in heart rate due to increase in venous return in known as
A) Baroreceptor reflex
B) Psychogenic reflex
C) Vasovagal reflex
D) Bainbridge reflex
75. In domestic animals, thermal sweating is contributed by
A) Apocrine glands
B) Apocrine and eccrine glands
C) Eccrine glands
D) Mesocrine glands
76. Lactation can be artificially induced by injection of
A) Lactogen
B) Large dose of Oxytocin
C) Bovine somatotropin
D) LH
77. The contact phase of coagulation is absent in
A) Cattle
B) Dog
C) Horse
D) Birds
78. All are vasodilators except
A) Prostacyclin
B) Thromboxane A2
C) Kinins
D) Nitric oxide
79. Which among the following muscles extend from the distal third of the femur to the point of the hock?
A) Soleus
B) Superficial digital flexor
C) Gastrocnemius
D) Deep digital flexor
80. The heterotropic bone present in the male genital tract of the Dog and Bats is
A) Osrostri
B) Oscardis
C) Osphrenic
D) Ospenis
81. The vestigial first premolar of the horse is popularly termed
A) Pinchers
B) Hippers
C) Wolf-teeth
D) Canine teeth
82. In the neck of the omasum, the laminae changes to thick fold and there are a number of the peculiar papillae known as
A) Filiform papillae
B) Fungiform papillae
C) Unguiform papillae
D) Conical papillae
83. Assertion (A): The large and small colon of horse is sacculated
Reason (B): Muscular bards or tacriae are present in the horse colon
A) Both (A) and (B) are false
B) Both (A) and (B) are true. (B) is the reason for (A)
C) (A) is true but (B) is false
D) Both (A) and (B) are true. But (B) is not the reason for (A)
84. Omotransversarius is absent in
A) Horse
B) Ox
C) Buffalo
D) Dog
85. Ossification of joint with advancing age is known as
A) Synostosis
B) Syndesmoses
C) Synchondroses
D) Arthroidal
86. Reversal agent for succinyl choline is
A) Neostigmine
B) Pyridostigmine
C) Edrophonium
D) None of the above
87. Which among the following class of drugs do not act on GABA receptor?
A) Propofol
B) Alfaxalone
C) Phenothiazines
D) Etomidate
88. Nephrotoxic agent produced by the interaction of sevoflurane and soda lime in the anesthetic circuit is termed as
A) Compound A
B) Compound B
C) Compound C
D) Compound D
89. Orthopaedic implants are made up of stainless steel grade
A) 420
B) 420X
C) 304
D) 316VLM
90. Tissue glue should not be used in
A) Infected wound
B) Punctured wound
C) Wounds with tension in edges
D) All the above
91. Cardinal radiographic sign of alveolar lung disease is represented by
A) Increased lung opacity
B) Decreased lung opacity
C) Ring shadows
D) Air bronchogram
92. Bunnel mayer sutures are used to suture
A) Uterus
B) Tendon
C) Stomach
D) Intestine
93. Pervious urachus seen as congenital condition is a
A) Sinus
B) Cyst
C) Hernia
D) Fistula
94. Radiolucent calculi is or are
A) Struvite
B) Oxalate
C) Both A and B
D) Urate
95. Dropping of the upper eyelid is
A) Stye
B) Ptosis
C) Chalazion
D) Proptosis
96. Which among the following is suitable test for evaluation of gastric and small intestinal functions?
A) Starch digestion test
B) Cellulose digestion test
C) Absorption test
D) Lactose tolerance test
97. Vomiting is rarely originated from this center in farm animals
A) Central
B) Peripheral
C) Metabolic
D) All the above
98. Hoflund syndrome is used to denote
A) Vagal indigestion
B) Acid indigestion
C) Alkali indigestion
D) Traumatic pericarditis
99. CSF pressure is increased in
A) Polioencephalomalacia
B) Bacterial meningitis
C) Hypovitaminosis
D) All the above
100. Drug used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
A) Methimazole
B) Metamizole
C) Metronidazole
D) Triclabendazole
101. Peaked T wave denotes
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyermagnesemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hyperkalemia
102. Total blindness is called as
A) Amaurosis
B) Nyctalopia
C) Amblyopia
D) Presbycusis
103. Normal calcium to magnesium ratio is
A) 6:1
B) 3:1
C) 2:1
D) 15:1
104. Field test of urine for hypomagnesemia is
A) Xylidyl blue test
B) Malachite green test
C) Rotheras test
D) Mareis test
105. Perosis in birds is caused by deficiency of
A) Magnesium
B) Manganese
C) Copper
D) Cobalt
106. Loose association without metabolic dependence is termed as
A) Symbiosis
B) Phoresis
C) Predation
D) Mutualism
107. The host harbouring the sexual stage of a parasite is known as
A) Definitive host
B) Final host
C) Determinate host
D) All of the above
108. Gastro-intestinal tract is absent in
A) Trematodes
B) Cestodes
C) Nematodes
D) Both A & B
109. The term parasitosis best explains
A) State of balance as host is capable of repairing the damage
B) State of imbalance as host is incapable of repairing the damage
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
110. The choice of drug for the treatment of canine babesiosis is
A) Diminazene
B) Trypan blue
C) Imidocarb
D) Quinuronium sulfate
111. Body is not so divided and oesophagus is 1/3rd of body length in which of the following parasites?
A) Trichuris
B) Strongyloides
C) Oxyuris
D) Strongylus
112. Sheep scab is caused by
A) Sarcoptes
B) Notoedres
C) Psoroptes
D) Chorioptes
113. ‘Red mite of poultry’ is scientifically termed as
A) Ornithonyssus bursa
B) Pneumonyssus caninum
C) Dermanyssus gallinae
D) None of the above
114. Corridor disease in buffalo is caused by
A) Theileria annulata
B) Theileria mutans
C) Theileria lawrensi
D) Theileria parva
115. Fistulous wither in horse is associate with which of the following nematode parasite?
A) Stephanofilaria
B) Dirofilaria
C) Parafilaria
D) Onchocera
116. Abdominal breathing known as “thumps” is due to
A) Ascaris suum
B) Hyostrongylus rubidus
C) Ascarops strongylina
D) Oesophagostomum dentatum
117. Cooked rice grain like gravid segment is found in
A) Moniezia spp.
B) Anoplocephala spp.
C) Both A and B
D) Thysanosoma spp.
118. The following stage is/are found in vertebrate intermediate host
A) Cysticercus
B) Cysticercoid
C) Hydatid cyst
D) Both A and C
119. Operculated egg is a characteristic of which of the following class?
A) Eucestoda
B) Trematoda
C) Cotyloda
D) Both B and C
120. Dollar spot is caused by
A) Trypanosoma equinum
B) Trypanosoma equiperdum
C) Trypanosoma evansi
D) Trypanosoma vivax
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 3.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 02.08.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | No. of correct questions |
| 1 | Pyari | SVVU, Tirupati | 103 |
| 2 | Nabaneeta | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 102 |
| 3 | Hanuman Balagoni | PVNRTVU, Hyderabad | 100 |
| 4 | Antra Gupta | SKUAST-Jammu | 99 |
| 5 | Navjot Singh Thakur | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 98 |
| 6 | Isheeta Raina | SKUAST-Jammu | 97 |
| 6 | Vishnu K | KVASU, Kerala | 97 |
| 7 | Harsh Jogi | JAU, Gujarat | 96 |
| 7 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 96 |
| 7 | Sakthi Siva Priya B | TANUVAS, Chennai | 96 |
| 8 | Renu Sharma | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 95 |
| 9 | Preethi | RIVER, Puducherry | 94 |
| 9 | Kanika Yadav | KVAFSU, Bidar | 94 |
| 9 | Saima | SKUAST-Kashmir | 94 |
| 9 | V Vijay Kumar | SVVU, Tirupati | 94 |
| 10 | Sumiter Singh | TANUVAS, Chennai | 90 |
| 10 | Ensha Lomiya | KVASU, Kerala | 90 |
| 10 | Neha | COVAS | 90 |
| 10 | Mansi | SKUAST-Jammu | 90 |
| 10 | Kiran Mishra | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 90 |
| 10 | Ahi Chaudhary | SDAU, Gujarat | 90 |
| 10 | Udhayakandhan M | TANUVAS, Chennai | 90 |
| 10 | Vijaya Mahantesh S K | KVAFSU, Bidar | 90 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. S.K. Sheetal (Asstt. Prof., VGO, BASU Patna)
Dr. Megha Kaore (Asstt. Prof., VPP, MAFSU Nagpur)
Dr. Bilawal Singh (Asstt. Prof., VAE, GADVASU Ludhiana)
Dr. Chaple Ashwini (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS Chennai)
Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].
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