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Test paper of mock test (ICAR-Veterinary Sciences 3.0) with answers and toppers

03/08/2020 by Dr. Amandeep Singh Leave a Comment

Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 3.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1. In meningitis, the type of respiration seen is

A) Syncoptic respiration

B) Cheynes-stokes respiration

3) Kussmauls respiration

4) Biots respiration

 

2. In cyanide poisoning, which type of hypoxia occurs?

A) Stagnant

B) Anaemic

C) Histotoxic

D) All the above

 

3. Tonometer is used for assessing

A) Pressure

B) Density

C) Volume

D) Ulcer

 

4. Killing, poisoning and maiming an animal are punishable under

A) Section 429

B) Section 269

C) Section 162

D) Section 420

 

5. The most common form of bovine ketosis is

A) Wasting form

B) Nervous form

C) Subclinical form

D) All of the above

 

6. Bipolar vessel sealing system can seal vessels upto diameter of

A) 0.7mm

B) 7mm

C) 0.07mm

D) 70mm

 

7. Only cephalosporin given once in 14 days interval for soft tissue infections is

A) Cefovecin

B) Cefotetan

C) Ceftazidime

D) Cefquinome

 

8. Brachycepalic syndrome consists of

A) Stenotic nares

B) Elongated soft palate

C) Everted laryngeal saccule

D) All the above

 

9. The ideal age for disbudding is

A) One to two weeks

B) Two to three weeks

C) Three to four weeks

D) Above four weeks

 

10. An accurate, early diagnosis of pregnancy is known as

A) Cyesiognosis

B) Pseudocyesiognosis

C) Both

D) None

 

11. Which among the following species is a long day breeder?

A) Mare

B) Cow

C) Sheep

D) Pig

 

12. In which species ovary is less sensitive to exogenous FSH?

A) Cow

B) Sheep

C) Mare

D) All

 

13. Abortion in case of Tricomonas foetus in cows occurs at which trimester

A) 1st trimester

B) 2nd trimester

C) 3rd trimester

D) All the trimester

 

14. Lowland abortion or marshland abortion occurs due to

A) Nitrate poisoning

B) Arsenic poisoning

C) Locoweeds

D) Sweet clover

 

15. Mating of mares at foal heat leads to early embryonic mortality due to

A) Reduce effectiveness of uterine defense mechanism

B) Stress of lactation

C) Incomplete regeneration of the endometrium

D) All of the above

 

16. Early embryonic mortality occurs in mares affected by contagious equine metritis is due to the presence of

A) Taylorella equigenitalis

B) Brucella

C) Trepanosoma equiperdum

D) Trepanosoma equinum

 

17. Synchronization of estrous cycle involves

A) Extending the luteal phase

B) Shortening the luteal phase

C) Both of the above

D) None of the above

 

18. Heape performed first successful embryo transfer in 1891 in

A) Rabbit

B) Cat

C) Rat

D) Mice

 

19. Torsion of uterus uncommon in mare due to

A) Ventrally attached broad ligaments

B) Dorsally attached broad ligament

C) Laterally attached broad ligament

D) Ventro-laterally attached broad ligament

 

20. Hematic type of fetal mummification is found in

A) Cow

B) Mare

C) Bitch

D) Pig

 

21. On per rectal palpation crepitation sound is observed in which of the following conditions in cows?

A) Maceration

B) Mummification

C) Hydramnios

D) Hydrallantois

 

22. The present Director General of WHO is

A) Margret Chan

B) Jose da Silva

C) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus

D) Monique Eloit

 

23. The head quarter of World Organization of Animal Health (OIE) is located at

A) Rome

B) Geneva

C) Paris

D) New Delhi

 

24. ICMSF stands for

A) Indian Council of Microbiological Safety of Foods.

B) International Commission on Microbiological Specifications for Foods.

C) Indian Commission on Microbiological Specifications for Foods.

D) None of the above.

 

25. World Zoonoses day is observed on

A) 16 July

B) 05 August

C) 23 January

D) 06 July

 

26. WHO declared COVID-19 as a Pandemic on

A) March 11, 2020

B) February 11, 2020

C) March 1, 2020

D) January 30, 2020

 

27. Which biosafety level is used for handling avian influenza virus?

A) Biosafety level I

B) Biosafety level II

C) Biosafety level III

D) Biosafety level IV

 

28. Cold sterilization means

A) Sterilization at low temperature

B) Sterilization by radiation

C) Sterilization at high temperature

D) Flash pasteurization

 

29. Echinococcosis is diagnosed by

A) Casoni test

B) Sereni test

C) Anton test

D) All of the above

 

30. What percentage of emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic in origin?

A) 60%

B) 70%

C) 75%

D) 80%

 

31. Irritant and non-isotonic drug solution are injected by which of the following routes?

A) Intravenous

B) Intramuscular

C) Sub Cutaneous

D) Intraperitoneal

 

32. Which among the following characteristics of drugs does not favor absorption from the site of drug administration?

A) Small molecular size of drugs

B) Non polar drugs

C) Polar drugs

D) Lipid soluble drugs

 

33. Thiopental anesthesia is contraindicated in which breed of dog?

A) Boxer

B) Pug

C) Labrador

D) Grey hound

 

34. Which among the following agents is used as benzodiazepine antagonist?

A) Flumazenil

B) Fipronil

C) Diazepam

D) Pralidoxime

 

35. An example for NMDA receptor antagonist is

A) Xylazine

B) Diazepam

C) Tremadol

D) Ketamine

 

36. Digitalis is used as

A) Anti-arrhythmic drug

B) Cardiac glycoside

C) Haemopoietic drug

D) Hepatoprotective drug

 

37. Which among the following is not an examples of respiratory stimulants?

A) Doxapram

B) Nikethamide

C) Salbutamol

D) Ethamivan

 

38. Disinfectant of choice during FMD outbreak is

A) 2% NaOH

B) 4% Na2CO3

C) Both of the above

D) None of the above

 

39. Garlic like odour of gastrointestinal contents is suggestive of poisoning with

A) Nitrate

B) HCN

C) Alkali

D) Phosphorus

 

40.‘Arthropathy’ is one of the major side effects observed with

A) Sulphonamides

B) Fluoroquinolones

C) Macrolides

D) Aminoglycosides

 

41. Primary mechanism of anthelmintic action of albendazole is by

A) Inhibition of GABA channels

B) Interference with cell wall synthesis

C) Inhibition of tubulin formation

D) Inhibition of glucose uptake

 

42. In which of the following conditions, laryngeal nerve paralysis and roaring is observed in horses?

A) Arsenic poisoning

B) Lead poisoning

C) Mercury poisoning

D) Molybdenum poisoning

 

43. Death in cyanide poisoning is due to

A) Depletion of neurotransmitters

B) Increased inta-cranial pressure

C) Histotoxic hypoxia

D) Excessive haemorrhage

 

44. Which of the following is called as macrophages of liver?

A) Histiocytes

B) Kupfer cells

C) Microglia

D) Plasma cells

 

45. Hybridoma technology was first discovered by?

A) Kohler and Milstein

B) Niels Kaj Jerne

C) Frederick Twort and Felix d’Herelle

D) Louis Pasteur

 

46. Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct except

A) C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms psuedohyphae when it invades tissue

B) C. albicans causes thrush

C) C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol

D) Impaired cell mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to disease

 

47. Name the class of immunoglobulin which takes part in hypersensitivity reaction?

A) IgG

B) IgE

C) IgA

D) IgM

 

48. Which of the following is used as a solidifying agent for media?

A) Beef extract

B) Peptone

C) Agar

D) Yeast extract

 

49. The bacteria, used to examine the efficacy of autoclave is?

A) B. polymyxa

B) B. brevis

C) B. stearothermophilus

D) B. megaterium

 

50. Viruses contain

A) DNA

B) RNA

C) Either DNA or RNA

D) Both DNA and RNA

 

51. In Gram staining, if some bacteria retain the crystal violet stain after alcohol treatment. Then the bacteria are?

A) Gram positive

B) Gram negative

C) Procedure is incomplete to answer this question

D) None

 

52. Lipopysaccharide is found in cell wall of

A) Gram positive bacteria

B) Gram negative bacteria

C) Both

D) Fungi

 

53. Which one of the avian digestive tract structures secretes HCl and pepsinogen?

A) Crop

B) Ventriculus

C) Proventriculus

D) Ceca

 

54. Which among the following is true about the bursa of Fabricius?

A) It is a part of the small intestine

B) It is associated with cellular immunity

C) It is associated with humoral immunity

D) It produces erythrocytes

 

55. What is the mean hydrostatic pressure in the systemic capillaries?

A) 15 mmHg

B) 25 mmHg

C) 30 mmHg

D) 50 mmHg

 

56. What structure in the intercalated disc allows the free diffusion of ions?

A) T tubules

B) Desmosomes

C) Fascia adherens

D) Gap junctions

 

57. A nerve fiber is made up of

A) An axon only

B) An axon and Schwann cells

C) An axon and endoneurium

D) An axon and epineurium

 

58. Basophilic stippling is noticed in

A) Lead poisoning

B) Phenothizine poisoning

C) Thyrotoxicosis

D) Thrichimosis

 

59. In which of the following conditions, the formation of hyaline membrane occurs?

A) Interstistial pneumonia

B) Granulomatous pneumonia

C) Suppurative pneumonia

D) Aspiratory pneumonia

 

60. Parasite associated with nodules in esophagus and aorta in dog is

A) Ancylostoma

B) Spirocerca lupi

C) Toxocaracanis

D) Dirofilariaimmitis

 

61. Which type of anemia results due to non-functional bone marrow?

A) Haemolytic

B) Haemorrhagic

C) Aplastic

D) None of these

 

62. Hygroma of knee in bovines is observed in

A) Leptospirosis

B) Listeriosis

C) Both A & B

D) Brucellosis

 

63. Coccidiosis in Goat is caused by

A) I. neorivolta

B) I. burrowsi

C) E. ellipsoidalis

D) None of these

 

64. Which type of giant cells are formed in tuberculosis?

A) Tumor

B) Tuton

C) Langhan’s

D) Both B & C

 

65. Enlargement and mottling of spleen in birds is seen in

A) ILT

B) Infectious bronchitis

C) Spirochaetosis

D) E. coli infections

 

66. Pneumoencephalitis is a feature of

A) Rabies

B) Spongiform encephalitis

C) Ranikhet disease

D) Tetanus

 

67. Staining method is used for diagnosis of Anaplsmosis is

A) Gram’s stain

B) Lactophenol cotton blue

C) Acid fast Stain

D) Leishman’s stain

 

68. In the structures of corpora amylacae, the type of degeneration seen is

A) Fatty changes

B) Hydropic degeneration

C) Hyaline degeneration

D) Cloudy swelling

 

69. Increased number of leukocytes in CSF is termed as

A) Leukocytosis

B) Lymphocytosis

C) Pleocytosis

D) None of the above

 

70. In hog cholera, button shaped ulcers are especially seen in _____________ of large intestine.

A) Caecum

B) Colon

C) Rectum

D) None of the above

 

71. Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by acting along with

A) Antithrombin III

B) Factor III

C) Factor XIII

D) Factor I

 

72. The erythrocytic enzyme which facilitates carbon dioxide transport in blood is

A) Carboxydehydrogenase

B) Carboxyhydrogenase

C) Carbonic anhydrase

D) Carboxylase

 

73. The immunoglobulin that does not cross placental barrier is

A) Ig A

B) Ig D

C) Ig M

D) Ig G

 

74. Increase in heart rate due to increase in venous return in known as

A) Baroreceptor reflex

B) Psychogenic reflex

C) Vasovagal reflex

D) Bainbridge reflex

 

75. In domestic animals, thermal sweating is contributed by

A) Apocrine glands

B) Apocrine and eccrine glands

C) Eccrine glands

D) Mesocrine glands

 

76. Lactation can be artificially induced by injection of

A) Lactogen

B) Large dose of Oxytocin

C) Bovine somatotropin

D) LH

 

77. The contact phase of coagulation is absent in

A) Cattle

B) Dog

C) Horse

D) Birds

 

78. All are vasodilators except

A) Prostacyclin

B) Thromboxane A2

C) Kinins

D) Nitric oxide

 

79. Which among the following muscles extend from the distal third of the femur to the point of the hock?

A) Soleus

B) Superficial digital flexor

C) Gastrocnemius

D) Deep digital flexor

 

80. The heterotropic bone present in the male genital tract of the Dog and Bats is

A) Osrostri

B) Oscardis

C) Osphrenic

D) Ospenis

 

81. The vestigial first premolar of the horse is popularly termed

A) Pinchers

B) Hippers

C) Wolf-teeth

D) Canine teeth

 

82. In the neck of the omasum, the laminae changes to thick fold and there are a number of the peculiar papillae known as

A) Filiform papillae

B) Fungiform papillae

C) Unguiform papillae

D) Conical papillae

 

83. Assertion (A): The large and small colon of horse is sacculated

Reason (B): Muscular bards or tacriae are present in the horse colon

A) Both (A) and (B) are false

B) Both (A) and (B) are true. (B) is the reason for (A)

C) (A) is true but (B) is false

D) Both (A) and (B) are true. But (B) is not the reason for (A)

 

84. Omotransversarius is absent in

A) Horse

B) Ox

C) Buffalo

D) Dog

 

85. Ossification of joint with advancing age is known as

A) Synostosis

B) Syndesmoses

C) Synchondroses

D) Arthroidal

 

86. Reversal agent for succinyl choline is

A) Neostigmine

B) Pyridostigmine

C) Edrophonium

D) None of the above

 

87. Which among the following class of drugs do not act on GABA receptor?

A) Propofol

B) Alfaxalone

C) Phenothiazines

D) Etomidate

 

88. Nephrotoxic agent produced by the interaction of sevoflurane and soda lime in the anesthetic circuit is termed as

A) Compound A

B) Compound B

C) Compound C

D) Compound D

 

89. Orthopaedic implants are made up of stainless steel grade

A) 420

B) 420X

C) 304

D) 316VLM

 

90. Tissue glue should not be used in

A) Infected wound

B) Punctured wound

C) Wounds with tension in edges

D) All the above

 

91. Cardinal radiographic sign of alveolar lung disease is represented by

A) Increased lung opacity

B) Decreased lung opacity

C) Ring shadows

D) Air bronchogram

 

92. Bunnel mayer sutures are used to suture

A) Uterus

B) Tendon

C) Stomach

D) Intestine

 

93. Pervious urachus seen as congenital condition is a

A) Sinus

B) Cyst

C) Hernia

D) Fistula

 

94. Radiolucent calculi is or are

A) Struvite

B) Oxalate

C) Both A and B

D) Urate

 

95. Dropping of the upper eyelid is

A) Stye

B) Ptosis

C) Chalazion

D) Proptosis

 

96. Which among the following is suitable test for evaluation of gastric and small intestinal functions?

A) Starch digestion test

B) Cellulose digestion test

C) Absorption test

D) Lactose tolerance test

 

97. Vomiting is rarely originated from this center in farm animals

A) Central

B) Peripheral

C) Metabolic

D) All the above

 

98. Hoflund syndrome is used to denote

A) Vagal indigestion

B) Acid indigestion

C) Alkali indigestion

D) Traumatic pericarditis

 

99. CSF pressure is increased in

A) Polioencephalomalacia

B) Bacterial meningitis

C) Hypovitaminosis

D) All the above

 

100. Drug used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism

A) Methimazole

B) Metamizole

C) Metronidazole

D) Triclabendazole

 

101. Peaked T wave denotes

A) Hypernatremia

B) Hyermagnesemia

C) Hypercalcemia

D) Hyperkalemia

 

102. Total blindness is called as

A) Amaurosis

B) Nyctalopia

C) Amblyopia

D) Presbycusis

 

103. Normal calcium to magnesium ratio is

A) 6:1

B) 3:1

C) 2:1

D) 15:1

 

104. Field test of urine for hypomagnesemia is

A) Xylidyl blue test

B) Malachite green test

C) Rotheras test

D) Mareis test

 

105. Perosis in birds is caused by deficiency of

A) Magnesium

B) Manganese

C) Copper

D) Cobalt

 

106. Loose association without metabolic dependence is termed as

A) Symbiosis

B) Phoresis

C) Predation

D) Mutualism

 

107. The host harbouring the sexual stage of a parasite is known as

A) Definitive host

B) Final host

C) Determinate host

D) All of the above

 

108. Gastro-intestinal tract is absent in

A) Trematodes

B) Cestodes

C) Nematodes

D) Both A & B

 

109. The term parasitosis best explains

A) State of balance as host is capable of repairing the damage

B) State of imbalance as host is incapable of repairing the damage

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

 

110. The choice of drug for the treatment of canine babesiosis is

A) Diminazene

B) Trypan blue

C) Imidocarb

D) Quinuronium sulfate

 

111. Body is not so divided and oesophagus is 1/3rd of body length in which of the following parasites?

A) Trichuris

B) Strongyloides

C) Oxyuris

D) Strongylus

 

112. Sheep scab is caused by

A) Sarcoptes

B) Notoedres

C) Psoroptes

D) Chorioptes

 

113. ‘Red mite of poultry’ is scientifically termed as

A) Ornithonyssus bursa

B) Pneumonyssus caninum

C) Dermanyssus gallinae

D) None of the above

 

114. Corridor disease in buffalo is caused by

A) Theileria annulata

B) Theileria mutans

C) Theileria lawrensi

D) Theileria parva

 

115. Fistulous wither in horse is associate with which of the following nematode parasite?

A) Stephanofilaria

B) Dirofilaria

C) Parafilaria

D) Onchocera

 

116. Abdominal breathing known as “thumps” is due to

A) Ascaris suum

B) Hyostrongylus rubidus

C) Ascarops strongylina

D) Oesophagostomum dentatum

 

117. Cooked rice grain like gravid segment is found in

A) Moniezia spp.

B) Anoplocephala spp.

C) Both A and B

D) Thysanosoma spp.

 

118. The following stage is/are found in vertebrate intermediate host

A) Cysticercus

B) Cysticercoid

C) Hydatid cyst

D) Both A and C

 

119. Operculated egg is a characteristic of which of the following class?

A) Eucestoda

B) Trematoda

C) Cotyloda

D) Both B and C

 

120. Dollar spot is caused by

A) Trypanosoma equinum

B) Trypanosoma equiperdum

C) Trypanosoma evansi

D) Trypanosoma vivax

 

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

 

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 3.0

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 02.08.2020.

Rank Name of the candidate University No. of correct questions
1 Pyari SVVU, Tirupati 103
2 Nabaneeta OUAT, Bhubaneswar 102
3 Hanuman Balagoni PVNRTVU, Hyderabad 100
4 Antra Gupta SKUAST-Jammu 99
5 Navjot Singh Thakur CSKHPKV, Palampur 98
6 Isheeta Raina SKUAST-Jammu 97
6 Vishnu K KVASU, Kerala 97
7 Harsh Jogi JAU, Gujarat 96
7 Vijayraghvan DP TANUVAS, Chennai 96
7 Sakthi Siva Priya B TANUVAS, Chennai 96
8 Renu Sharma CSKHPKV, Palampur 95
9 Preethi RIVER, Puducherry 94
9 Kanika Yadav KVAFSU, Bidar 94
9 Saima SKUAST-Kashmir 94
9 V Vijay Kumar SVVU, Tirupati 94
10 Sumiter Singh TANUVAS, Chennai 90
10 Ensha Lomiya KVASU, Kerala 90
10 Neha COVAS 90
10 Mansi SKUAST-Jammu 90
10 Kiran Mishra NDVSU, Jabalpur 90
10 Ahi Chaudhary SDAU, Gujarat 90
10 Udhayakandhan M TANUVAS, Chennai 90
10 Vijaya Mahantesh S K KVAFSU, Bidar 90

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. S.K. Sheetal (Asstt. Prof., VGO, BASU Patna)

Dr. Megha Kaore (Asstt. Prof., VPP, MAFSU Nagpur)

Dr. Bilawal Singh (Asstt. Prof., VAE, GADVASU Ludhiana)

Dr. Chaple Ashwini (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS Chennai)

Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI)

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].

If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.

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