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Test paper of mock test (ICAR-Veterinary Sciences 4.0) with answers and toppers

17/08/2020 by Dr. Amandeep Singh 1 Comment

Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 4.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1. Gold standard test for the rabies diagnosis is

A) dFAT

B) Sandwich ELISA

C) Real-time PCR

D) None of the above

 

2. Choose  the special stain used for the staining of keratin

A) Dane’s method

B) Weigert method

C) Fraser lendrum method

D) Van-giesons method

 

3. Hemorrhages at the base of the pulmonary artery in sheep are the characteristic gross finding of

A) FMD

B) CD

C) BT

D) Pseudo rabies

 

4. Which of the following factors affect the rate of post-mortem autolysis?

A) Environmental temperature

B) Size of the animal

C) Fat content of the animal

D) All of the above

 

5. Pale yellowish bone marrow, atrophied thymus, hemorrhage in the breast and leg muscles in poultry  are the characteristics post-mortem finding of

A) Reoviral arthritis

B) Egg drop syndrome

C) Chicken infectious anemia

D) Pullorum Disease

 

6. Chronic latent infection Is the characteristic feature of

A) Mumps

B) Herpes Virus

C) Adeno Virus

D) Paramyxo Virus

 

7. Choose the role of C3a and C5a in the different reaction of inflammation

A) Vasodilation

B) Increase vascular permeability

C) Leucocyte activation and recruitment

D) Do not play any significant role

 

8. Localized collection of purulent inflammatory changes caused by the suppuration buried in a tissue, organ or confined space is known as

A) Pustule

B) Maccule

C) Abscess

D) All of the above

 

9. Mediator responsible for the fever in acute inflammation is

A) IL-1

B) TNF

C) Prostaglandin

D) All of the above

 

10. Paraneoplastic syndrome includes

A) Endocrinopathies

B) Hypercalcemia

C) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

D) All of the above

 

11. Microscopic lesion including congested, edematous hemorrhagic trachea, minute foci of  lymphocytes and plasma cell in the kidney and ovary, and atrophied oviduct in poultry is indicative of

A) Infectious bronchitis

B) Infectious laryngotracheitis

C) Avian Influenza

D) None of the above

 

12. Silver stain is used for the diagnosis of

A) Fungi

B) Legionellae

C) Pneumocyte

D) All of the above

 

13. The Secondary fixative which is used for the fixation in the electron microscopy is

A) Glutaraldehyde

B) Osmium tetroxide

C) Either A or B

D) No need of any secondary fixation in electron microscopy

 

14. Which gene is the most common target for the genetic alteration in human tumor and is also known as the ‘Guardian of the Genome’

A) p53

B) Bax

C) BAD

D) BCl2

 

15. The association of endotoxin in gram-negative bacteria is a result of the presence of

A) Peptidoglycan

B) Lipopolysaccharides

C) Polypeptides

D) Steroids

 

16. Bacteriophage can be readily counted by the process of

A) Plaque assay

B) ELISA

C) Electron Microscopy

D) Immunoassay

 

17. The condition required for autoclaving is

A) 121 °C temp and 15 lbs. pressure for 15 min

B) 120 °C temp and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min

C) 150 °C temp for 1 hr.

D) 130 °C temp for 2 hr.

 

18. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is

A) L J medium

B) Mac Conkey’s Medium

C) Wilson Blair medium

D) None of these

 

19. HIV belongs to

A) Retroviridae family

B) Rhabdoviridae family

C) Reoviridae family

D) Coronaviridae family

 

20. Epidemic typhus is caused by

A) R. mooseri

B) R. prowazakii

C) R. quintana

D) Any of the above

 

21. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as

A) Street virus

B) Fixed virus

C) Both a and b

D) None of the above

 

22. The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicillin is

A) Penicillium chrysogenum

B) Penicillium notatum

C) Streptomyces aurecus

D) Saccharomyces species

 

23. During conjunction ,the genetic material is transferred through

A) Cell wall

B) Medium

C) Pili

D) Capsule

 

24. Vaccines prepared from killed microbes are called

A) Attenuated vaccines

B) Autogenous vaccine

C) Inactivated vaccine

D) None of these

 

25. Rickettsia can be stained with

A) Giemsa stain

B) Gimenez stain

C) Both

D) None

 

26. Praziquantel and tartar emetic is drug of choice for

A) Schistosoma sp.

B) Fasciola sp.

C) Notocotylus

D) Dipelidium

 

27. Acid rebound effect is observed with

A) Sodium bicarbonate

B) Sodium citrate

C) Sodium chloride

D) Potassium iodide

 

28. Which of the following is an H1-receptor antagonist

A) Nizatidine

B) Ranitidine

C) Terfenadine

D) Famotidine

 

29. Proton pump blockers act by inhibiting

A) H+-K+- ATPase

B) H+-Na+- K+- ATPase

C) H+-Ca++ -K+- ATPase

D) K+- ATPase

 

30. Which of the following sulfonamide is used as topical agent?

A) Sulfacetamide

B) Sulphaguanadine

C) Sulfaquinoxaline

D) Sulfasalazine

 

31. A canine breed most susceptible to copper toxicity is

A) Bedlington terrier

B) Labrador

C) Collie

D) Pomeranian

 

32. Fastest response in living tissues is produced by which type of receptor action ?

A) GPCR

B) Ligand gated ion channels

C) Enzymatic receptors

D) Receptors mediating gene transcription

 

33. Phase 4 of clinical studies in drug development is also known as

A) Pharmacognosy

B) Pharmacovigilance

C) Pharmacophore

D) Polypharmacy

 

34. Administration of penicillin is contraindicated by which route?

A) Intramuscular route

B) Intrathecal route

C) Intra-articular route

D) Intravenous route

 

35. Haemorrhage is a characteristic toxic effect of which of the following?

A) Cyanide

B) Nitrate

C) Carbon tetrachloride

D) Warfarin

 

36. Presence of heavy metals in biological samples can be qualitatively detected by

A) Nessler’s reagent

B) Reinch’s test

C) Diphenylamine test

D) Picric acid paper test

 

37. An agent used against anaerobic bacteria as well as protozoa is

A) Mebendazole

B) Metronidazole

C) Methicillin

D) Marbofloxacin

 

38. Ketoconazole acts by

A) Inhibition of ATP syntheis

B) Interference with fungal ionic channels

C) Inhibition of fungal ergosterol synthesis

D) Depolarisation of fungal plasma membrane

 

39.Which one of the following pairs of poison and site of action is correctly matched?

A) OP-compounds: Cholineacetyl transferase

B) Cyanide: Monoamino oxidase

C) Lead: Acetylcholineesterase

D) Warfarin: Vitamin-K epoxide reductase

 

40. A specific iron chelating agent useful in acute and sub-acute toxicosis

A) Dimercaprol

B) D-penicillamine

C) Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate

D) Desferroxamine

 

41. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease?

A) Cryptosporidiosis

B) Hydatidosis

C) Visceral larva migrans

D) Haemonchosis

 

42. The relationship in which one organism benefits nutritionally from another without harming the benefactor is known as

A) Commensalism

B) Phoresy

C) Mutualism

D) Parasitism

 

43. The drug of choice for treatment of fasciolosis is

A) Ivermectin

B) Triclabendazole

C) Pyrantel

D) Albendazole

 

44. The nematode parasite which causes Hump sore in cattle is

A) Stephanofilaria assamensis

B) Stephanofilaria zaheeri

C) Setaria cervi

D) Onchocerca gibsoni

 

45. Gastric myiasis in horses is caused by

A) Gasterophilus sp.

B) Chrysomyia sp.

C) Lucilia sp.

D) Calliphora sp.

 

46. In Diphyllobothriosis in dog, deficiency of the following nutrient occurs

A) Vit. A

B) Calcium

C) Vit. B12

D) Phosphorous

 

47. Eimeria tenella which causes caecal coccidiosis occurs in the birds of age group

A) 4-6 weeks

B) 8-9 weeks

C) 12-14 weeks

D) 19-20 weeks

 

48. The nematode parasite found in the eye of equines is

A) Thelazia rhodesii

B) Thelazia lacrymalis

C) Habronema majus

D) Habronema muscae

 

49. Follicular mange in canines is caused by which mite species?

A) Sarcoptes scabei

B) Demodex canis

C) Psoroptes canis

D) Otodectes cyanotis

 

50. Which of the following species of coccidia affect birds at the point of laying?

A) Eimeria acervulina

B) Eimeria mivati

C) Eimeria necatrix

D) Eimeria hagani

 

51. Moulting pockets are formed in the skin of dog in following mite infection?

A) Demodex canis

B) Psoroptes ovis

C) Sarcoptes scabiei

D) Oribatid mite

 

52. The  protozoa which causes early abortion in cattle is

A) Babesia bigemina

B) Trypanosoma equiperdum

C) Tritrichomonas foetus

D) Toxoplasma gondii

 

53. Commonly used method for removing temporary hardness in water during domestic use is

A) Washing soda

B) Boiling

C) Resins

D) Calcium hydroxides

 

54. First case of Japanese Encephalitis was reported in India in

A) Maharashtra

B) Assam

C) West Bengal

D) Uttar Pradesh

 

55. Which factor helps in multiplication of Brucella in the placenta of cattle?

A) Glycogen

B) Oxytocin

C) Erythritol

D) Sucrose

 

56. Biosafety level used for Ebola virus is

A) BSL I

B) BSL II

C) BSL III

D) BSL IV

 

57. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) belongs to family

A) Picornaviridae

B) Calciviridae

C) Astroviridae

D) Adenoviridae

 

58. Study of disease in relation to ecosystem is called as

A) Ecological Mosaic

B) Landscape Epidemiology

C) Ecological Interface

D) Ecological Climax

 

59. Which of the following epidemiological studies also called as retrospective study?

A) Cross sectional

B) Cohort

C) Nested

D) Case control

 

60. The headquarter of ISO is located at

A) Rome

B) Geneva

C) Paris

D) New Delhi

 

61. Symptoms of Staph. aureus food poisoning appears in

A) 12 hours

B) 6 hours

C) 24 hours

D) 72 hours

 

62. Diagnostic test based on antigenic cross reaction between Rickettsia and Proteus strain is

A) MAT test

B) Mantoux test

C) Weil Felix test

D) All of the above

 

63. Maximum Permissible Level (MPL) for lead in water is

A) 0.01 mg/lit

B) 0.1 mg/lit

C) 0.05 mg/lit

D) 0.5 mg/lit

 

64. Which of the following is an example for obligatory cyclozoonoses?

A) Hydatidosis

B) Taeniosis

C) Dengue

D) Brucellosis

 

65. What is the strain responsible for recent outbreak of Swine Flu in China in 2020?

A) G4 EA H1N1

B) G4 AE H1N1

C) G4 EA H5N1

D) None of these

 

66. Swiss cheese appearance of endometrium is associated with

A) Follicular cyst

B) Luteal cyst

C) Par ovarian cyst

D) Both A and B

 

67. Which of the following is normal structure?

A) Follicular cyst

B) Luteal cyst

C) Cystic corpora lutea

D) None of these

 

68. Accurate ultrasonographic diagnosis of pregnancy in cattle can be done at

A) 10 days after breeding

B) 20days after breeding

C) 25 days after breeding

D) 35 days after breeding

 

69. Peg cells are found in

A) Vagina

B) Uterus

C) Oviduct

D) Ovary

 

70. Uterine caruncles have concave shape in

A) Cow

B) Buffalo

C) Sheep

D) All of these

 

71. Smallest uterine body is present in

A) Mare

B) Cow

C) Buffalo

D) Both B and C

 

72. Number of carbon atoms in estrogen is

A) 18

B) 19

C) 20

D) 21

 

73. Which of the following hormone is decapeptide?

A) LH

B) FSH

C) GnRH

D) Prolactin

 

74. Half life of oxytocin is approximately

A) 2-5 min

B) 15 min

C) 30 min

D) 1 hr

 

75. Most common type of mummification in pig is

A) Hematic

B) Papyraceous

C) Both

D) None

 

76. Winter anestrus is commonly observed in

A) Cow

B) Buffalo

C) Mare

D) All of these

 

77. Post service pyometra is characteristic of

A) Vibriosis

B) Trichomoniasis

C) Brucellosis

D) IBR-IPV

 

78. On which day embryo collection is performed in buffalo

A) 3rd day

B) 4th day

C) 6th day

D) 7th day

 

79. Bovine CL is unresponsive to luteolytic effect of PGF2-alpha until

A) Day 5 of cycle

B) Day 12 of cycle

C) Day 16 of cycle

D) None

 

80. Estrogen is luteolytic in

A) Ruminants

B) Horse

C) Pig

D) All of these

 

81. Intramedullary pin does not counteract ____________ force

A) Bending

B) Shear

C) Rotational

D) Tension

 

82. Catoptric test is used to diagnose

A) Retinal detachment

B) Opacities on cornea and lens

C) Glaucoma

D) Proptosis

 

83. Distension of the great sesamoidean sheath is called

A) Capped hock

B) Arthriti

C) Capped knee

D) Wind galls

 

84. Radical surgery is surgery done to

A) Eliminate root cause

B) Conserve damaged tissue

C) Remove damaged tissue

D) Correct malformations

 

85. The example of semi-closed with absorption system of administration of inhalant anaesthetics is

A) Magill system

B) To and Fro system

C) Cirale system

D) Mask induction

 

86. Bacteria Bacillins stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator for

A) Gas sterilization

B) Steam sterilization

C) Cold sterilization

D) None of the above

 

87. Inherent capability of the suture material to return to or maintain its original gross shape is called as

A) Elasticity

B) Memory

C) Capillarity

D) Flexibility

 

88. Adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva to the bulbar conjunctiva is called as

A) Ankyloblepharon

B) Blepharospasm

C) Blepharitis

D) Symblepharon

 

89. The wound is known as infected if the bacterial count exceeds

A) 108 bacteria/gm

B) 106 bacteria/gm

C) 105 bacteria/gm

D) 107 bacteria/gm

 

90. Avulsion fracture is common at the

A) Femur

B) Humerus

C) Olecranon process of ulna

D) Scapula

 

91. Operation performed for entropion is

A) Y-V plasty

B) Z-plasty

C) V-Y plasty

D) Holtz technique

 

92. During rumenotomy the rumen is fixed by using

A) Finochitto frame

B) Balfour’s frame

C) Gelpi frame

D) Weingarth’s frame

 

93. _________________ is an exostosis on the supero-antero-internal aspect of the first phalanx.

A) Ring bone

B) Splints

C) Pyrimidal disease

D) Bobba bone

 

94. Early biochemical change in subclinical hypothyroidism in dog is

A) Increased T4

B) Decreased T3

C) TSH and LDL cholesterol

D) Decreased TSH

 

95. Hyperosmolarity is expected when the serum osmolality is

A) > 200 mOsm/L

B) > 240 mOsm/L

C) > 180 mOsm/L

D) > 340 mOsm/L

 

96. Gag reflex test is performed to know the functional ability of

A) Glossopharyngeal nerve

B) Vestibulocochlear nerve

C) Hypoglossaol nerve

D) Trigeminal nerve

 

97. Normal level of ionized calcium in venous whole blood of cow is

A) 4.3 to 5.1 mg/dl

B) 3.5 to 3.8 mg/dl

C) 3 mg/dl

D) 6.5 to 8.5 mg/dl

 

98. Which among the following is not seen in alkaline urine?

A) Magnesium ammonium phosphate

B) Urate

C) Calcium carbonate

D) Calcium phosphate

 

99. Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of pneumonia?

A) Anti-inflammatory

B) Antibiotic

C) Antitussive

D) Bronchodilator

 

100. Conversion of iodine containing hormone T4 to T3 is affected by the deficiency of

A) Vitamin A

B) Selenium

C) Zinc

D) Vitamin B2

 

101. An example of isotonic fluid is

A) 5% Dextrose

B) 5% Sodium bicarbonate

C) 5% Sodium chloride

D) 5% Potassium chloride

 

102. Excessive use of ammonia fertilizers in pastures or fodder crops may play a significant role in the etiology of

A) Bovine ketosis

B) Lactation tetany

C) Parturient paresis

D) Downer cow syndrome

 

103. An antibiotic which cross blood prostate barrier is

A) Amoxicillin

B) Enrofloxacin

C) Clindamycin

D) Oxytetracycline

 

104. All are calcium channel blockers except

A) Diltiazem

B) Amlodipine

C) Verapamil

D) Carvedilol

 

105. Which anion is specifically measured by urine reagent strip for ketones?

A) D- lactone

B) D-glutamate

C) Acetoacetate

D) B-hydroxybutyrate

 

106. A sulfonamide-based anticonvulsant that suppresses epileptic foci and blocks the propagation of epileptic discharges is

A) Clorazepate

B) Zonisamide

C) Sulfidrin

D) Felbamate

 

107. Medial strabismus is observed in the dysfunction of  which nerve?

A) Glossopharyngeal

B) Oculomotor

C) Abducent

D) None of the above

 

108. The shift to left denotes all except

A) Bacterial infection

B) Inflammation

C) Increase in immature neutrophils

D) Increase in mature neutrophils

 

109. Filteration fraction refers to

A) GFR/RPF ratio

B) GFR/RBF ratio

C) RPF/GFR ratio

D) RBF/GFR ratio

 

110. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron- tubules by

A) Co transport

B) Counter transport

C) Passive diffusion

D) All the above

 

111. Norepinephrine will cause contraction of the smooth muscle in the

A) Bronchioles

B) Intestine

C) Pupils and ciliary body

D) Arterioles

 

112. Prolactin promotes the secretion of Progesterone by Corpora Lutea in which species?

A) Rat & mice

B) Rat & ewe

C) Mice & ewe

D) Mice & rabbit

 

113. Expiration is regulated by which center of the brain?

A) Pneumotaxic center

B) Apneustic center

C) Ventral respiratory group

D) Dorsal respiratory group

 

114. External source of erythropoietin production in mammals is

A) Liver

B) Lymph nodes

C) Lungs

D) Bone

 

115. Costal breathing is observed in all conditions except

A) Normal respiration

B) Breathing difficulty

C) Pneumo thorax

D) Pain in abdomen

 

116. Cervical part of the supraspinatus ligament is called as

A) Superior check ligament

B) Inferior check ligament

C) Ligamentum nuchae

D) Ligamentum arteriosum

 

117. Depression leading to two or more foramina is called

A) Hiatus

B) Sinus

C) Foramen

D) Meatus

 

118. Musculospiral groove is for the lodgement of which muscle?

A) Coracobrachialis

B) Brachialis

C) Biceps brachii

D) Trapezius

 

119. Impression of heart is seen in the liver of

A) Ox

B) Fowl

C) Horse

D) Pig

 

120. Which one of following the laryngeal cartilages is paired?

A) Cricoid

B) Arytenoid

C) Thyroid

D) Epiglottis

 

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

 

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 4.0

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 16.08.2020.

Rank Name of the candidate University No. of correct questions
1 Navjot Singh Thakur CSKHPKV, Palampur 98
2 Sahil Gahlian ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar 96
2 Harsh Jogi JAU, Gujarat 96
3 Sakthi SP TANUVAS, Chennai 93
3 Vijayraghvan DP TANUVAS, Chennai 93
3 Rithika SVVU, Tirupati 93
4 Sumanmeet Kour SKUAST-Jammu 92
5 Pyari SVVU, Tirupati 91
5 Garima Rathore RAJUVAS, Bikaner 91
5 Kanika Yadav KVAFSU, Bidar 90
6 Waseem Mirsab PT KVASU, Kerala 90
6 Sreelakshmi KVASU, Kerala 90
6 Sachin KVAFSU, Bidar 90
6 Lakshmi Prakasan COVAS, Pookode 90
6 Vijaya Mahantesh KVAFSU, Bidar 90
7 Isheeta Raina SKUAST-Jammu 89
7 Bhakti Chavda AAU, Gujarat 89
8 Suryasmita Rath OUAT, Bhubaneswar 88
8 Hardik A. Rokad JAU, Gujarat 88
8 Deepshikha DUVASU, Mathura 88
9 Amritha Rai KVAFSU, Bidar 86
9 Riya GADVASU, Ludhiana 86
9 Dhruv CSKHPKV, Palampur 86
10 R S Chuahan DUVASU, Mathura 85
10 Sakshi CSKHPKV, Palampur 85
10 Ipsita OUAT, Bhubaneswar 85
10 Ishita Gupta CSKHPKV, Palampur 85
10 Sonali N TANUVAS, Chennai 85

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. G.M. Chigure (Asstt. Prof., VPA, MAFSU Nagpur)

Dr. Chaple Ashwini (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Dipanshu Bisht (MVSc Scholar, VSR, ICAR-IVRI)

Dr. Dennis George (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI)

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].

If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.

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Filed Under: Mock Tests, Recent Trends, Resources For Veterinarians Tagged With: AIEEA, ICAR, JRF, mock test, vet, veterinary sciences

Comments

  1. K says

    17/08/2020 at 12:11 PM

    Isn’t it that P. notatum and P. chrysogenum the same?

    Reply

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