Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 4.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. Gold standard test for the rabies diagnosis is
A) dFAT
B) Sandwich ELISA
C) Real-time PCR
D) None of the above
2. Choose the special stain used for the staining of keratin
A) Dane’s method
B) Weigert method
C) Fraser lendrum method
D) Van-giesons method
3. Hemorrhages at the base of the pulmonary artery in sheep are the characteristic gross finding of
A) FMD
B) CD
C) BT
D) Pseudo rabies
4. Which of the following factors affect the rate of post-mortem autolysis?
A) Environmental temperature
B) Size of the animal
C) Fat content of the animal
D) All of the above
5. Pale yellowish bone marrow, atrophied thymus, hemorrhage in the breast and leg muscles in poultry are the characteristics post-mortem finding of
A) Reoviral arthritis
B) Egg drop syndrome
C) Chicken infectious anemia
D) Pullorum Disease
6. Chronic latent infection Is the characteristic feature of
A) Mumps
B) Herpes Virus
C) Adeno Virus
D) Paramyxo Virus
7. Choose the role of C3a and C5a in the different reaction of inflammation
A) Vasodilation
B) Increase vascular permeability
C) Leucocyte activation and recruitment
D) Do not play any significant role
8. Localized collection of purulent inflammatory changes caused by the suppuration buried in a tissue, organ or confined space is known as
A) Pustule
B) Maccule
C) Abscess
D) All of the above
9. Mediator responsible for the fever in acute inflammation is
A) IL-1
B) TNF
C) Prostaglandin
D) All of the above
10. Paraneoplastic syndrome includes
A) Endocrinopathies
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
D) All of the above
11. Microscopic lesion including congested, edematous hemorrhagic trachea, minute foci of lymphocytes and plasma cell in the kidney and ovary, and atrophied oviduct in poultry is indicative of
A) Infectious bronchitis
B) Infectious laryngotracheitis
C) Avian Influenza
D) None of the above
12. Silver stain is used for the diagnosis of
A) Fungi
B) Legionellae
C) Pneumocyte
D) All of the above
13. The Secondary fixative which is used for the fixation in the electron microscopy is
A) Glutaraldehyde
B) Osmium tetroxide
C) Either A or B
D) No need of any secondary fixation in electron microscopy
14. Which gene is the most common target for the genetic alteration in human tumor and is also known as the ‘Guardian of the Genome’
A) p53
B) Bax
C) BAD
D) BCl2
15. The association of endotoxin in gram-negative bacteria is a result of the presence of
A) Peptidoglycan
B) Lipopolysaccharides
C) Polypeptides
D) Steroids
16. Bacteriophage can be readily counted by the process of
A) Plaque assay
B) ELISA
C) Electron Microscopy
D) Immunoassay
17. The condition required for autoclaving is
A) 121 °C temp and 15 lbs. pressure for 15 min
B) 120 °C temp and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min
C) 150 °C temp for 1 hr.
D) 130 °C temp for 2 hr.
18. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
A) L J medium
B) Mac Conkey’s Medium
C) Wilson Blair medium
D) None of these
19. HIV belongs to
A) Retroviridae family
B) Rhabdoviridae family
C) Reoviridae family
D) Coronaviridae family
20. Epidemic typhus is caused by
A) R. mooseri
B) R. prowazakii
C) R. quintana
D) Any of the above
21. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
A) Street virus
B) Fixed virus
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
22. The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicillin is
A) Penicillium chrysogenum
B) Penicillium notatum
C) Streptomyces aurecus
D) Saccharomyces species
23. During conjunction ,the genetic material is transferred through
A) Cell wall
B) Medium
C) Pili
D) Capsule
24. Vaccines prepared from killed microbes are called
A) Attenuated vaccines
B) Autogenous vaccine
C) Inactivated vaccine
D) None of these
25. Rickettsia can be stained with
A) Giemsa stain
B) Gimenez stain
C) Both
D) None
26. Praziquantel and tartar emetic is drug of choice for
A) Schistosoma sp.
B) Fasciola sp.
C) Notocotylus
D) Dipelidium
27. Acid rebound effect is observed with
A) Sodium bicarbonate
B) Sodium citrate
C) Sodium chloride
D) Potassium iodide
28. Which of the following is an H1-receptor antagonist
A) Nizatidine
B) Ranitidine
C) Terfenadine
D) Famotidine
29. Proton pump blockers act by inhibiting
A) H+-K+- ATPase
B) H+-Na+- K+- ATPase
C) H+-Ca++ -K+- ATPase
D) K+- ATPase
30. Which of the following sulfonamide is used as topical agent?
A) Sulfacetamide
B) Sulphaguanadine
C) Sulfaquinoxaline
D) Sulfasalazine
31. A canine breed most susceptible to copper toxicity is
A) Bedlington terrier
B) Labrador
C) Collie
D) Pomeranian
32. Fastest response in living tissues is produced by which type of receptor action ?
A) GPCR
B) Ligand gated ion channels
C) Enzymatic receptors
D) Receptors mediating gene transcription
33. Phase 4 of clinical studies in drug development is also known as
A) Pharmacognosy
B) Pharmacovigilance
C) Pharmacophore
D) Polypharmacy
34. Administration of penicillin is contraindicated by which route?
A) Intramuscular route
B) Intrathecal route
C) Intra-articular route
D) Intravenous route
35. Haemorrhage is a characteristic toxic effect of which of the following?
A) Cyanide
B) Nitrate
C) Carbon tetrachloride
D) Warfarin
36. Presence of heavy metals in biological samples can be qualitatively detected by
A) Nessler’s reagent
B) Reinch’s test
C) Diphenylamine test
D) Picric acid paper test
37. An agent used against anaerobic bacteria as well as protozoa is
A) Mebendazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Methicillin
D) Marbofloxacin
38. Ketoconazole acts by
A) Inhibition of ATP syntheis
B) Interference with fungal ionic channels
C) Inhibition of fungal ergosterol synthesis
D) Depolarisation of fungal plasma membrane
39.Which one of the following pairs of poison and site of action is correctly matched?
A) OP-compounds: Cholineacetyl transferase
B) Cyanide: Monoamino oxidase
C) Lead: Acetylcholineesterase
D) Warfarin: Vitamin-K epoxide reductase
40. A specific iron chelating agent useful in acute and sub-acute toxicosis
A) Dimercaprol
B) D-penicillamine
C) Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate
D) Desferroxamine
41. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease?
A) Cryptosporidiosis
B) Hydatidosis
C) Visceral larva migrans
D) Haemonchosis
42. The relationship in which one organism benefits nutritionally from another without harming the benefactor is known as
A) Commensalism
B) Phoresy
C) Mutualism
D) Parasitism
43. The drug of choice for treatment of fasciolosis is
A) Ivermectin
B) Triclabendazole
C) Pyrantel
D) Albendazole
44. The nematode parasite which causes Hump sore in cattle is
A) Stephanofilaria assamensis
B) Stephanofilaria zaheeri
C) Setaria cervi
D) Onchocerca gibsoni
45. Gastric myiasis in horses is caused by
A) Gasterophilus sp.
B) Chrysomyia sp.
C) Lucilia sp.
D) Calliphora sp.
46. In Diphyllobothriosis in dog, deficiency of the following nutrient occurs
A) Vit. A
B) Calcium
C) Vit. B12
D) Phosphorous
47. Eimeria tenella which causes caecal coccidiosis occurs in the birds of age group
A) 4-6 weeks
B) 8-9 weeks
C) 12-14 weeks
D) 19-20 weeks
48. The nematode parasite found in the eye of equines is
A) Thelazia rhodesii
B) Thelazia lacrymalis
C) Habronema majus
D) Habronema muscae
49. Follicular mange in canines is caused by which mite species?
A) Sarcoptes scabei
B) Demodex canis
C) Psoroptes canis
D) Otodectes cyanotis
50. Which of the following species of coccidia affect birds at the point of laying?
A) Eimeria acervulina
B) Eimeria mivati
C) Eimeria necatrix
D) Eimeria hagani
51. Moulting pockets are formed in the skin of dog in following mite infection?
A) Demodex canis
B) Psoroptes ovis
C) Sarcoptes scabiei
D) Oribatid mite
52. The protozoa which causes early abortion in cattle is
A) Babesia bigemina
B) Trypanosoma equiperdum
C) Tritrichomonas foetus
D) Toxoplasma gondii
53. Commonly used method for removing temporary hardness in water during domestic use is
A) Washing soda
B) Boiling
C) Resins
D) Calcium hydroxides
54. First case of Japanese Encephalitis was reported in India in
A) Maharashtra
B) Assam
C) West Bengal
D) Uttar Pradesh
55. Which factor helps in multiplication of Brucella in the placenta of cattle?
A) Glycogen
B) Oxytocin
C) Erythritol
D) Sucrose
56. Biosafety level used for Ebola virus is
A) BSL I
B) BSL II
C) BSL III
D) BSL IV
57. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) belongs to family
A) Picornaviridae
B) Calciviridae
C) Astroviridae
D) Adenoviridae
58. Study of disease in relation to ecosystem is called as
A) Ecological Mosaic
B) Landscape Epidemiology
C) Ecological Interface
D) Ecological Climax
59. Which of the following epidemiological studies also called as retrospective study?
A) Cross sectional
B) Cohort
C) Nested
D) Case control
60. The headquarter of ISO is located at
A) Rome
B) Geneva
C) Paris
D) New Delhi
61. Symptoms of Staph. aureus food poisoning appears in
A) 12 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 72 hours
62. Diagnostic test based on antigenic cross reaction between Rickettsia and Proteus strain is
A) MAT test
B) Mantoux test
C) Weil Felix test
D) All of the above
63. Maximum Permissible Level (MPL) for lead in water is
A) 0.01 mg/lit
B) 0.1 mg/lit
C) 0.05 mg/lit
D) 0.5 mg/lit
64. Which of the following is an example for obligatory cyclozoonoses?
A) Hydatidosis
B) Taeniosis
C) Dengue
D) Brucellosis
65. What is the strain responsible for recent outbreak of Swine Flu in China in 2020?
A) G4 EA H1N1
B) G4 AE H1N1
C) G4 EA H5N1
D) None of these
66. Swiss cheese appearance of endometrium is associated with
A) Follicular cyst
B) Luteal cyst
C) Par ovarian cyst
D) Both A and B
67. Which of the following is normal structure?
A) Follicular cyst
B) Luteal cyst
C) Cystic corpora lutea
D) None of these
68. Accurate ultrasonographic diagnosis of pregnancy in cattle can be done at
A) 10 days after breeding
B) 20days after breeding
C) 25 days after breeding
D) 35 days after breeding
69. Peg cells are found in
A) Vagina
B) Uterus
C) Oviduct
D) Ovary
70. Uterine caruncles have concave shape in
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Sheep
D) All of these
71. Smallest uterine body is present in
A) Mare
B) Cow
C) Buffalo
D) Both B and C
72. Number of carbon atoms in estrogen is
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
73. Which of the following hormone is decapeptide?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) Prolactin
74. Half life of oxytocin is approximately
A) 2-5 min
B) 15 min
C) 30 min
D) 1 hr
75. Most common type of mummification in pig is
A) Hematic
B) Papyraceous
C) Both
D) None
76. Winter anestrus is commonly observed in
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Mare
D) All of these
77. Post service pyometra is characteristic of
A) Vibriosis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Brucellosis
D) IBR-IPV
78. On which day embryo collection is performed in buffalo
A) 3rd day
B) 4th day
C) 6th day
D) 7th day
79. Bovine CL is unresponsive to luteolytic effect of PGF2-alpha until
A) Day 5 of cycle
B) Day 12 of cycle
C) Day 16 of cycle
D) None
80. Estrogen is luteolytic in
A) Ruminants
B) Horse
C) Pig
D) All of these
81. Intramedullary pin does not counteract ____________ force
A) Bending
B) Shear
C) Rotational
D) Tension
82. Catoptric test is used to diagnose
A) Retinal detachment
B) Opacities on cornea and lens
C) Glaucoma
D) Proptosis
83. Distension of the great sesamoidean sheath is called
A) Capped hock
B) Arthriti
C) Capped knee
D) Wind galls
84. Radical surgery is surgery done to
A) Eliminate root cause
B) Conserve damaged tissue
C) Remove damaged tissue
D) Correct malformations
85. The example of semi-closed with absorption system of administration of inhalant anaesthetics is
A) Magill system
B) To and Fro system
C) Cirale system
D) Mask induction
86. Bacteria Bacillins stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator for
A) Gas sterilization
B) Steam sterilization
C) Cold sterilization
D) None of the above
87. Inherent capability of the suture material to return to or maintain its original gross shape is called as
A) Elasticity
B) Memory
C) Capillarity
D) Flexibility
88. Adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva to the bulbar conjunctiva is called as
A) Ankyloblepharon
B) Blepharospasm
C) Blepharitis
D) Symblepharon
89. The wound is known as infected if the bacterial count exceeds
A) 108 bacteria/gm
B) 106 bacteria/gm
C) 105 bacteria/gm
D) 107 bacteria/gm
90. Avulsion fracture is common at the
A) Femur
B) Humerus
C) Olecranon process of ulna
D) Scapula
91. Operation performed for entropion is
A) Y-V plasty
B) Z-plasty
C) V-Y plasty
D) Holtz technique
92. During rumenotomy the rumen is fixed by using
A) Finochitto frame
B) Balfour’s frame
C) Gelpi frame
D) Weingarth’s frame
93. _________________ is an exostosis on the supero-antero-internal aspect of the first phalanx.
A) Ring bone
B) Splints
C) Pyrimidal disease
D) Bobba bone
94. Early biochemical change in subclinical hypothyroidism in dog is
A) Increased T4
B) Decreased T3
C) TSH and LDL cholesterol
D) Decreased TSH
95. Hyperosmolarity is expected when the serum osmolality is
A) > 200 mOsm/L
B) > 240 mOsm/L
C) > 180 mOsm/L
D) > 340 mOsm/L
96. Gag reflex test is performed to know the functional ability of
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Hypoglossaol nerve
D) Trigeminal nerve
97. Normal level of ionized calcium in venous whole blood of cow is
A) 4.3 to 5.1 mg/dl
B) 3.5 to 3.8 mg/dl
C) 3 mg/dl
D) 6.5 to 8.5 mg/dl
98. Which among the following is not seen in alkaline urine?
A) Magnesium ammonium phosphate
B) Urate
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Calcium phosphate
99. Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of pneumonia?
A) Anti-inflammatory
B) Antibiotic
C) Antitussive
D) Bronchodilator
100. Conversion of iodine containing hormone T4 to T3 is affected by the deficiency of
A) Vitamin A
B) Selenium
C) Zinc
D) Vitamin B2
101. An example of isotonic fluid is
A) 5% Dextrose
B) 5% Sodium bicarbonate
C) 5% Sodium chloride
D) 5% Potassium chloride
102. Excessive use of ammonia fertilizers in pastures or fodder crops may play a significant role in the etiology of
A) Bovine ketosis
B) Lactation tetany
C) Parturient paresis
D) Downer cow syndrome
103. An antibiotic which cross blood prostate barrier is
A) Amoxicillin
B) Enrofloxacin
C) Clindamycin
D) Oxytetracycline
104. All are calcium channel blockers except
A) Diltiazem
B) Amlodipine
C) Verapamil
D) Carvedilol
105. Which anion is specifically measured by urine reagent strip for ketones?
A) D- lactone
B) D-glutamate
C) Acetoacetate
D) B-hydroxybutyrate
106. A sulfonamide-based anticonvulsant that suppresses epileptic foci and blocks the propagation of epileptic discharges is
A) Clorazepate
B) Zonisamide
C) Sulfidrin
D) Felbamate
107. Medial strabismus is observed in the dysfunction of which nerve?
A) Glossopharyngeal
B) Oculomotor
C) Abducent
D) None of the above
108. The shift to left denotes all except
A) Bacterial infection
B) Inflammation
C) Increase in immature neutrophils
D) Increase in mature neutrophils
109. Filteration fraction refers to
A) GFR/RPF ratio
B) GFR/RBF ratio
C) RPF/GFR ratio
D) RBF/GFR ratio
110. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron- tubules by
A) Co transport
B) Counter transport
C) Passive diffusion
D) All the above
111. Norepinephrine will cause contraction of the smooth muscle in the
A) Bronchioles
B) Intestine
C) Pupils and ciliary body
D) Arterioles
112. Prolactin promotes the secretion of Progesterone by Corpora Lutea in which species?
A) Rat & mice
B) Rat & ewe
C) Mice & ewe
D) Mice & rabbit
113. Expiration is regulated by which center of the brain?
A) Pneumotaxic center
B) Apneustic center
C) Ventral respiratory group
D) Dorsal respiratory group
114. External source of erythropoietin production in mammals is
A) Liver
B) Lymph nodes
C) Lungs
D) Bone
115. Costal breathing is observed in all conditions except
A) Normal respiration
B) Breathing difficulty
C) Pneumo thorax
D) Pain in abdomen
116. Cervical part of the supraspinatus ligament is called as
A) Superior check ligament
B) Inferior check ligament
C) Ligamentum nuchae
D) Ligamentum arteriosum
117. Depression leading to two or more foramina is called
A) Hiatus
B) Sinus
C) Foramen
D) Meatus
118. Musculospiral groove is for the lodgement of which muscle?
A) Coracobrachialis
B) Brachialis
C) Biceps brachii
D) Trapezius
119. Impression of heart is seen in the liver of
A) Ox
B) Fowl
C) Horse
D) Pig
120. Which one of following the laryngeal cartilages is paired?
A) Cricoid
B) Arytenoid
C) Thyroid
D) Epiglottis
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 4.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 16.08.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | No. of correct questions |
| 1 | Navjot Singh Thakur | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 98 |
| 2 | Sahil Gahlian | ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar | 96 |
| 2 | Harsh Jogi | JAU, Gujarat | 96 |
| 3 | Sakthi SP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 93 |
| 3 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 93 |
| 3 | Rithika | SVVU, Tirupati | 93 |
| 4 | Sumanmeet Kour | SKUAST-Jammu | 92 |
| 5 | Pyari | SVVU, Tirupati | 91 |
| 5 | Garima Rathore | RAJUVAS, Bikaner | 91 |
| 5 | Kanika Yadav | KVAFSU, Bidar | 90 |
| 6 | Waseem Mirsab PT | KVASU, Kerala | 90 |
| 6 | Sreelakshmi | KVASU, Kerala | 90 |
| 6 | Sachin | KVAFSU, Bidar | 90 |
| 6 | Lakshmi Prakasan | COVAS, Pookode | 90 |
| 6 | Vijaya Mahantesh | KVAFSU, Bidar | 90 |
| 7 | Isheeta Raina | SKUAST-Jammu | 89 |
| 7 | Bhakti Chavda | AAU, Gujarat | 89 |
| 8 | Suryasmita Rath | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 88 |
| 8 | Hardik A. Rokad | JAU, Gujarat | 88 |
| 8 | Deepshikha | DUVASU, Mathura | 88 |
| 9 | Amritha Rai | KVAFSU, Bidar | 86 |
| 9 | Riya | GADVASU, Ludhiana | 86 |
| 9 | Dhruv | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 86 |
| 10 | R S Chuahan | DUVASU, Mathura | 85 |
| 10 | Sakshi | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 85 |
| 10 | Ipsita | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 85 |
| 10 | Ishita Gupta | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 85 |
| 10 | Sonali N | TANUVAS, Chennai | 85 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. G.M. Chigure (Asstt. Prof., VPA, MAFSU Nagpur)
Dr. Chaple Ashwini (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Dipanshu Bisht (MVSc Scholar, VSR, ICAR-IVRI)
Dr. Dennis George (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
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Isn’t it that P. notatum and P. chrysogenum the same?