Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 5.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. Tissue protein binding of drug has which of the following effect on pharmacokinetics?
A) Enhances systemic absorption
B) Increases apparent volume of distribution
C) Decreases apparent volume of distribution
D) Decreases half-life of the drug
2. The CYP iso-enzymes responsible for carrying out more than 50% of metabolism of all therapeutic drugs are
A) 2C9 and 2C19
B) 3D6 and 2A4
C) 3A4 and 2D6
D) 1A2 and 2E1
3. NSAID recommended in the emergency treatment of colic in horses is
A) Aspirin
B) Diclofenac
C) Paracetamol
D) Flunixin
4. The vasodilatory action of glyceryl trinitrate is mediated by
A) Nitric oxide
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Nitric acid
D) Nitrogen dioxide
5. A clinically used antagonist of heparin is
A) Heparan sulphate
B) Dextran sulphate
C) Protamine sulphate
D) Ethamsylate
6. The molecular target of thiazide diuretics is
A) Na-K-2Cl symporter
B) Na-Cl symporter
C) Na-K-ATPase
D) Na channels on renal epithelium
7. An antibiotic having additional prokinetic effect on GI smooth muscles is
A) Sulphaguanidine
B) Erythromycin
C) Streptomycin
D) Enrofloxacin
8. Bisacodyl is an example of
A) Prokinetic
B) Anti-motility drug
C) Antiemetic
D) Purgative
9. Noscapine is an example of
A) Anti-diarrhoeal drug
B) Anti-allergic drug
C) Antitussive drug
D) Ecbolic
10. An example of insulin secretagogue used in treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is
A) Glibenclemide
B) Metformin
C) Acarbose
D) Rosiglitazone
11. Probenecid prolongs duration of action of penicillin G by
A) Inhibiting glomerular filtration
B) Inhibiting tubular secretion
C) Inhibiting tubular reabsorption
D) All the above
12. Enzyme reactivators like 2PAM and DAM bind to AChE on
A) Esteratic site
B) Anionic site
C) A site in between esteratic and anionic site
D) Away from anionic site
13. Characteristic feature of salt poisoning in pigs is
A) Neutrophilic encephalitis
B) Formation of cyst in the brain
C) Macrophage infiltration and giant cell formation
D) Eosinophilic encephalitis
14. ‘Rocker shaped hooves’ is a term associated with poisoning from
A) Fluoride
B) Lead
C) Selenium
D) Nitrates
15. Bollinger bodies are large intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies that are characteristic for
A) Newcastle disease virus
B) Mareks disease virus
C) Fowlpox virus
D) Rabies virus
16. The “pump handle” respiration is a typical clinical sign for infection with
A) Mareks disease virus
B) Infectious bursal disease virus
C) Avian influenza virus
D) Infectious laryngotracheitis virus
17. Which of the following is not correct about macrophages at various locations?
A) Kupffer cells – Liver
B) Microglial cells – Brain
C) Alveolar macrophages – Bone
D) Histiocytes – Connective tissue
18. Precipitation reaction in serology is based on interaction of antibodies with
A) Soluble antigen
B) Particulate antigen
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
19. In complement fixation test, the lysis of RBC indicates
A) No antibody present in test serum sample
B) No antigen present in test serum sample
C) No complement present in test serum sample
D) All of the above
20. Most fungi grow at a pH
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
21. Cluster of polar flagella at both poles of a bacterial cell is termed as
A) Lophotrichous
B) Amphitrichous
C) Peritrichous
D) Monotrichous
22. Metachromatic granules are found in which among the following bacteria?
A) Brucella abortus
B) Campylobacter spp
C) Corynaebacterium spp
D) None of the above
23. Trehalose demycolate is a glycolipid molecule found in cell wall of
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Leptospira interrogans
24. The infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis commonly known as “pink eye” disease is caused by
A) Mycoplasma bovis
B) Moraxella bovis
C) Actinomyces bovis
D) Mycobacterium bovis
25. Which phase of bacterial growth is also known as exponential phase and is a period characterized by cell doubling?
A) Lag phase
B) Log phase
C) Stationary phase
D) Decline phase
26. The definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona is
A) Horse
B) Dog
C) Opossum
D) Armadillo
27. Concentric ‘thumb prints’ striations and absence of spines are present in
A) Sarcoptes spp.
B) Cnemidocoptes
C) Notoedres
D) Chorioptes
28. Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by
A) Hyalomma anatolicum
B) Amblyomma americanum
C) Rhipicephalus microplus
D) Haemaphysalis spinigera
29. Chaetotaxy is the study of
A) Arrangement of spiracles
B) Arrangement of segments
C) Arrangement of denticles
D) Arrangement of bristles
30. Antrycide Prosalt contains Quinapyramine sulphate and Quinapyramine chloride in the ratio of
A) 1:2
B) 2:1
C) 1:1.5
D) 1.5:1
31. ‘Worm nest’ in cattle is caused by
A) Onchocerca gutturosa
B) Onchocerca reticulata
C) Onchocerca armillata
D) Onchocerca gibsoni
32. Gymnocephalus cercaria is the cercaria of
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Fasciolopsis buski
C) Fasciola gigantica
D) None of the above
33. Irregular and raised necrotic areas in the liver of turkey are seen due to infection of
A) Trichomonas gallinae
B) Tetratrichomonas gallinarum
C) Hexamita meleagridis
D) Histomonas meleagridis
34. Mango fly is the common name of
A) Chrysomia bezziana
B) Cordylobia anthropophaga
C) Calliphora erythrocephala
D) Chrysops dimidiata
35. Kinetoplast is absent in
A) Trypanosoma evansi
B) Trypanosoma equiperdum
C) Trypanosoma equinum
D) Trypanosoma brucei
36. A single evaginated scolex is present in
A) Cysticercus
B) Coenurus
C) Hydatid
D) Cysticercoid
37. Fainee’s criteria guidelines are used for the diagnosis of
A) Listeriosis
B) Glanders
C) Leptospirosis
D) Brucellosis
38. Prevalence and incidence of a population, respectively can be studied by
A) Case control and cohort study
B) Cross sectional and cohort study
C) Cohort and case control study
D) Cohort and cross sectional study
39. __________________ and __________________ microorganism indicates recent and old faecal pollution of water respectively.
A) Escherichia coli and faecal streptococci
B) Faecal streptococci and Clostridium welchii
C) Staphylococcus and Clostridium welchii
D) Clostridium welchii and faecal streptococci
40. Most Probable number (MPN) index of water sample is interpreted by
A) Fainee’s criteria
B) McCardy table
C) CLSI guidelines
D) EUCAST guidelines
41. Which test is used for detection of icterus in cattle carcass?
A) Peroxide test
B) Delvo test
C) Remington and Fowrie test
D) Resazurin test
42. “One medicine” concept was studied and authored in book Veterinary Medicine and Human Health in detail by
A) J.H.Steele
B) Calvin Schwabe
C) John Snow
D) James Lind
43. About 60 cases of Japanese encephalitis (JE) are reported in this region per week, slightly less than national average. This particular situation reflects
A) Epidemic disease
B) Pandemic disease
C) Endemic disease
D) Sporadic disease
44. Sensitivity and specificity in a diagnostic test indicates
A) True positives and true negatives
B) False positives and false negatives
C) True positives and false negatives
D) False positive and true negatives
45. Verotoxin is associated with which pathotype?
A) Shigatoxin producing coli
B) Enterotoxigenic coli
C) Enteroinvasive coli
D) Enterohaemorrhagic coli
46. In comparing the growth condition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis growth can be enhanced by
A) Pyruvate
B) Glycerol
C) Acetic acid
D) All of the above
47. For which zoonotic disease infective dose for human may be just a single organism?
A) Tetanus
B) Q fever
C) Tuberculosis
D) Anthrax
48. Desirable limit for turbidity of water sample is
A) < 5 NTU
B) > 5 NTU
C) 5 NTU
D) 10 NTU
49. National Institute of High Security Animal Disease (NIHSAD) is located at
A) Bangalore
B) Kasauli
C) Mukhteshwar
D) Bhopal
50. Orange staining of surgical instruments is due to
A) High pH detergent
B) Improper soaking in water
C) Increased chlorhexidine use
D) All the above
51. Vascular anastomoses should be performed with
A) Monofilament non absorbable material
B) Monofilament absorbable material
C) Multifilament absorbable material
D) Multifilament non absorbable material
52. Cystotomy with spillage of infected urine into abdomen comes under
A) Contaminated wound
B) Dirty wound
C) Clean contaminated wound
D) None of the above
53. Magimix cocktail contains
A) Butorphanol-acepromazine-detomidine
B) Butorphanol-acepromazine-ketamine
C) Butorphanol-acepromazine-clanazolam
D) Butorphanol-acepromazine-xylazine
54. Choledochoduodenostomy refers to surgical anastomosis of the
A) Common bile duct to the duodenum
B) Gallbladder to the duodenum
C) Cystic duct to the duodenum
D) None of the above
55. Kiwifruit like appearance in ultrasonography is indicative of
A) Transitional cell carcinoma
B) Gall bladder mucocele
C) Portosystemic shunt
D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
56. Hobday surgery is performed for
A) Guttural pouch empyema
B) Dorsal displacement of soft palate
C) Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy
D) Gastric dilatation
57. Tibial compression test is used to diagnose
A) Cruciate ligament rupture
B) Tibial tuberosity avulsion
C) Patellar luxation
D) Valgus deformity
58. Fractures running through the physis and a portion of the metaphysic comes under which category
A) Salter-Harris type I
B) Salter-Harris type II
C) Salter-Harris type III
D) Salter-Harris type IV
59. Fixation of an intestinal segment to the body wall denotes
A) Enteroenteropexy
B) Enteropexy
C) Enterotomy
D) Enterostomy
60. Fluorescein dye test is done to diagnose
A) Deep corneal ulcer
B) Glaucoma
C) Diabetic cataract
D) Nasolacrimal duct block
61. A standard skin staple is made of stainless steel of grade
A) 420
B) 420X
C) 316L
D) 304
62. Carbon dioxide laser provides
A) Less bleeding
B) Less pain
C) Less healing capacity in wounds
D) Both A and B
63. Radiographic diagnosis of feline idiopathic megacolon compares colon diameter to length of
A) L5
B) L2
C) L3
D) L4
64. Neonatal calves become hypothermic in
A) First 6 hr after birth
B) Immediately after birth
C) First 24 hr after birth
D) First week after birth
65. Biphasic fever present in
A) CD
B) Strangle in horse
C) Both A and B
D) ICH
66. 100ml of calcium borogluconate contains
A) 1.5gm of calcium
B) 2.14gm of calcium
C) 1gm of cacium
D) None of the above
67. Normal range of base excess in large animal is
A) 10-20mmol/L
B) 22-30mmol/L
C) 5-10mmol/L
D) 0-6mmol/L
68. Which of the following is true dehydration
A) Hypertonic dehydration
B) Hypotonic dehydration
C) Isotonic dehydration
D) Both B and C
69. 25% magsulf is
A) Hypertonic acidifying
B) Hypertonic alkalinizing
C) Isotonic alkalinizing
D) Isotonic acidifying
70. Drug of choice in sand colic is
A) Psyllium @ 1mg/kg BW
B) Psyllium @ 5mg/kg BW
C) [email protected] 200-400ml
D) 1 part Psyllium and 3 part magsulph
71. Struvite is
A) Magnesium ammonium sulphate
B) Sodium ammonium phosphate
C) Magnesium ammonium phosphate
D) Sodium ammonium sulphate
72. Fluid splashing sound in left flank is caused by
A) LDA
B) Vagal indigestion
C) Grain overload
D) Both B and C
73. Crooked calf disease is caused by
A) Lupinus spp.
B) Veratrum spp.
C) Oxytropis
D) Both B and C
74. Toxic line in horses seen in
A) Lead toxicosis
B) Arsenic poisoning
C) Colic
D) Both A and C
75. Which of the following is isotonic solution?
A) Lactated Ringer’s solution
B) Ringer’s solution
C) Carbicarb
D) Both B and C
76. Follicle appear as ________________ during ultrasonographic examination.
A) Hyperechoic structure
B) Hypoechoic structure
C) Anechoic structure
D) Echoic structure
77. Preovulatory luteinization of follicles occurs in ________________
A) Camel
B) Buffalo
C) Goat
D) Bitch
78. Which of the following is the time of ovulation in sow?
A) At the end of estrus
B) 24- 30 hrs after onset estrus
C) 35- 40 hrs after onset of estrus
D) 35- 40 hrs after end of estrus
79. Most common cause of dystocia in swine is
A) Primary uterine inertia
B) Secondary uterine inertia
C) Abnormal postures
D) Both A and B
80. Oblique ventro- vertical presentation represents ___________________
A) Breech presentation
B) Dog sitting posture
C) Vertex posture
D) Poll presentation
81. Bartlett technique is used for diagnosis of ___________________
A) Trichomoniasis
B) Brucellosis
C) Vibriosis
D) IBR- IPV
82. Tightly coiling of principle piece over middle piece is
A) Knobbed sperm defect
B) Diadem defect
C) Dag defect
D) Cork- screw defect
83. Elongation of blastocyst does not occurs in
A) Cow
B) Buffalo
C) Sheep
D) Mare
84. Which of the following hormone is responsible for postpartum anestrus in the cattle?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin
85. Which hormone releases during Ferguson’s reflex?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) PGF2 alpha
D) Oxytocin
86. Bloated bull frog condition is characteristics of ___________________
A) Hydroamnion
B) Hydroallanotois
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Both A and B
87. Potato soup color pus is observed in _________________________
A) Vibriosis
B) Brucellosis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Both A and C
88. Length of bull spermatozoa is ____________ micron
A) 40-50
B) 50-60
C) 60-70
D) 70-80
89. Site of fertilization in animals is
A) Ampullae
B) Isthmus
C) Infundibulum
D) Ampullary- isthmus junction
90. The colour of Chylothorax fluid is
A) Colourless
B) Red
C) White
D) Greenish
91. Physiological anestrum is noticed during
A) Pregnancy
B) Mummification
C) Pyometra
D) Psedopregnancy
92. Which of the following is not a critical event in the process of irreversible cell injury?
A) Loss of Mitochondrial function
B) Calcium influx
C) Lipid accumulation
D) Loss of membrane integrity
93. Sudoriferous cyst involves
A) Sweat gland
B) Sebaceous gland
C) Tarsal gland
D) Thyroid gland
94. Which of the following cells are not present in parathyroid gland?
A) Adipocytes
B) Chief cells
C) Parafollicular cells
D) Oxyphil cell
95. Case fatality rate is
A) Rate
B) Ratio
C) Proportion
D) None of the above
96. Total number of bones in the forelimb of horse is
A) 40
B) 44
C) 46
D) 48
97. Which one of the following does not originate from mesoderm?
A) Circulatory system
B) Respiratory system
C) Genital system
D) Serous membrane
98. Placental hormone in cattle is
A) HCG
B) PMSG
C) Protein-B
D) Placental Lactogen
99. Which of the following is true for deer family?
A) Only males have antlers
B) Only female have antlers
C) Both male and female have antlers
D) Antlers are absent in both males and female
100. Which one of the following is a visceral bone in pigs?
A) Os penis
B) Os cordis
C) Os rostrale
D) Os opticus
101. Urolithiasis may be caused by the deficiency of
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
102. The longest cranial nerve is
A) Trigeminal
B) Glossopharyngeal
C) Spinal accessory
D) Vagus
103. The nature of release of oxytocin during second stage of labour is
A) In spurts
B) In spurts and continuous
C) Continuous
D) Discontinuous
104. The preferred site for taking pulse in goats is
A) Femoral artery
B) Carotid artery
C) Coccygeal artery
D) Fascial artery
105. The equilibration period for buffalo bull semen is
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 4 hours
106. Reed-Sternberg giant cells are found in
A) Erythroid leucosis
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Hodgkin’s disease
107. Renal coccidiosis in equines is caused by
A) Eimeria leukarti
B) Eimeria solipedium
C) Klossiela equi
D) Eimeria uniungulata
108. Chicken infectious anaemia virus belongs to
A) Parvovirus
B) Gyrovirus
C) Erythrovirus
D) Dependovirus
109. Cyanosis in congenital heart disease is caused by
A) Pulmonary valvular insufficiency
B) A right to left shunt
C) Aortic stenosis
D) A left to right shunt
110. Concentration of KMnO4 used for cleaning a wound is
A) 10%
B) 5%
C) 3%
D) 1%
111. ‘Scaly leg’ in Poultry is caused by
A) Sarcoptes scabiei
B) Cytodites nudes
C) Cnemidocoptus gallinae
D) Cnemidocoptus mutan
112. Hog cholera virus has affinity for
A) Epithelial cells
B) Endothelial cells
C) Nerve cells
D) Hepatocytes
113. False gid in poultry is caused by
A) Oestrus ovis
B) Hypoderma spp
C) Chrysomyia bezziana
D) Melophagus ovina
114. The nucleus of which of the following cell gives cart wheel appearance?
A) Goblet cell
B) Mast cell
C) Adipose cell
D) Plasma cell
115. Which of the following tumors is known as rodent ulcer?
A) Mast cell tumor
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Transmissble venereal tumor
116. Hyperfunction of which one of the following leads to Cushing syndrome?
A) Adrenal gland
B) Thyroid gland
C) Parathyroid gland
D) Pituitary gland
117. Which one of the following does not belong to genus Pestivirus?
A) Yellow fever virus
B) Bovine viral diarrhoea virus
C) Swine fever virus
D) Border disease of sheep
118. Which type of cells produces “Interferon-B”?
A) Macrophages only
B) N K cells only
C) Fibroblasts and epithelial cells only
D) CD 8+ T cells
119. Infectious extracellular form of Chlamydia is
A) Reticulate bodies
B) Elementary bodies
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
120. Serum sickness is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 5.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 30.08.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | Score |
| 1 | Harsh Jogi | JAU, Gujarat | 346 |
| 2 | Rithika | SVVU, Tirupati | 341 |
| 3 | Sahil Gahlian | ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar | 340 |
| 4 | Navjot Singh Thakur | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 330 |
| 5 | Shankar Ramasamy | TANUVAS, Chennai | 329 |
| 6 | Arjun Shanavas | KVASU, Kerala | 325 |
| 7 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 317 |
| 7 | Sakthi SP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 317 |
| 7 | Isheeta Raina | SKUAST-Jammu | 317 |
| 8 | R S Chuahan | DUVASU, Mathura | 315 |
| 9 | Vikash | DUVASU, Mathura | 312 |
| 10 | Pyari | SVVU, Tirupati | 303 |
| 11 | Antra Gupta | SKUAST-Jammu | 298 |
| 12 | Suryasmita Rath | OUAT, Bhubaneswar | 296 |
| 13 | Athira Subash | KVASU, Kerala | 290 |
| 13 | Gulshan | DUVASU, Mathura | 290 |
| 14 | Shweta Panwar | GBPUAT, Pantnagar | 288 |
| 15 | Vijaya Mahantesh | KVAFSU, Bidar | 287 |
| 15 | Waseem Mirsab PT | KVASU, Kerala | 287 |
| 16 | Vishal | DUVASU, Mathura | 286 |
| 16 | Sumanmeet Kour | SKUAST-Jammu | 286 |
| 17 | Sunita Yadav | KVASU, Kerala | 285 |
| 18 | Chandni | KVASU, Kerala | 284 |
| 18 | Ensha Lomiya | KVASU, Kerala | 284 |
| 19 | Sreelakshmi | KVASU, Kerala | 281 |
| 20 | Gaurav Tevatia | GBPUAT, Pantnagar | 275 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. Chayanika Das (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Neha Bisht (PhD Scholar, VPA, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Harpreet Kour (PhD Scholar, VPT, GADVASU, Ludhiana)
Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Damini Khawaskar (MVSc Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Jitendra Singh Gandhar (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS, Chennai)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
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Subject wise mock tests will be highly appreciated.
Deficiency of Vitamin A causes urolithiasis.
Mango flies, belong to genus Cordylobia, not Chrysops.
For 1st question you are right. Vit. A deficiency leads to urolithiasis but the 2nd answer of yours is wrong.