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Test paper of mock test (ICAR-Veterinary Sciences 5.0) with answers and toppers

31/08/2020 by Dr. Amandeep Singh 3 Comments

Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 5.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1. Tissue protein binding of drug has which of the following effect on pharmacokinetics?

A) Enhances systemic absorption

B) Increases apparent volume of distribution

C) Decreases apparent volume of distribution

D) Decreases half-life of the drug

 

2. The CYP iso-enzymes responsible for carrying out more than 50% of metabolism of all therapeutic drugs are

A) 2C9 and 2C19

B) 3D6 and 2A4

C) 3A4 and 2D6

D) 1A2 and 2E1

 

3. NSAID recommended in the emergency treatment of colic in horses is

A) Aspirin

B) Diclofenac

C) Paracetamol

D) Flunixin

 

4. The vasodilatory action of glyceryl trinitrate is mediated by

A) Nitric oxide

B) Nitrous oxide

C) Nitric acid

D) Nitrogen dioxide

 

5. A clinically used antagonist of heparin is

A) Heparan sulphate

B) Dextran sulphate

C) Protamine sulphate

D) Ethamsylate

 

6. The molecular target of thiazide diuretics is

A) Na-K-2Cl symporter

B) Na-Cl symporter

C) Na-K-ATPase

D) Na channels on renal epithelium

 

7. An antibiotic having additional prokinetic effect on GI smooth muscles is

A) Sulphaguanidine

B) Erythromycin

C) Streptomycin

D) Enrofloxacin

 

8. Bisacodyl is an example of

A) Prokinetic

B) Anti-motility drug

C) Antiemetic

D) Purgative

 

9. Noscapine is an example of

A) Anti-diarrhoeal drug

B) Anti-allergic drug

C) Antitussive drug

D) Ecbolic

 

10. An example of insulin secretagogue used in treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is

A) Glibenclemide

B) Metformin

C) Acarbose

D) Rosiglitazone

 

11. Probenecid prolongs duration of action of penicillin G by

A) Inhibiting glomerular filtration

B) Inhibiting tubular secretion

C) Inhibiting tubular reabsorption

D) All the above

 

12. Enzyme reactivators like 2PAM and DAM bind to AChE on

A) Esteratic site

B) Anionic site

C) A site in between esteratic and anionic site

D) Away from anionic site

 

13. Characteristic feature of salt poisoning in pigs is

A) Neutrophilic encephalitis

B) Formation of cyst in the brain

C) Macrophage infiltration and giant cell formation

D) Eosinophilic encephalitis

 

14. ‘Rocker shaped hooves’ is a term associated with poisoning from

A) Fluoride

B) Lead

C) Selenium

D) Nitrates

 

15. Bollinger bodies are large intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies that are characteristic for

A) Newcastle disease virus

B) Mareks disease virus

C) Fowlpox virus

D) Rabies virus

 

16. The “pump handle” respiration is a typical clinical sign for infection with

A) Mareks disease virus

B) Infectious bursal disease virus

C) Avian influenza virus

D) Infectious laryngotracheitis virus

 

17. Which of the following is not correct about macrophages at various locations?

A) Kupffer cells – Liver

B) Microglial cells – Brain

C) Alveolar macrophages – Bone

D) Histiocytes – Connective tissue

 

18. Precipitation reaction in serology is based on interaction of antibodies with

A) Soluble antigen

B) Particulate antigen

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

 

19. In complement fixation test, the lysis of RBC indicates

A) No antibody present in test serum sample

B) No antigen present in test serum sample

C) No complement present in test serum sample

D) All of the above

 

20. Most fungi grow at a pH

A) 3

B) 5

C) 7

D) 9

 

21. Cluster of polar flagella at both poles of a bacterial cell is termed as

A) Lophotrichous

B) Amphitrichous

C) Peritrichous

D) Monotrichous

 

22. Metachromatic granules are found in which among the following bacteria?

A) Brucella abortus

B) Campylobacter spp

C) Corynaebacterium spp

D) None of the above

 

23. Trehalose demycolate is a glycolipid molecule found in cell wall of

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) Leptospira interrogans

 

24. The infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis commonly known as “pink eye” disease is caused by

A) Mycoplasma bovis

B) Moraxella bovis

C) Actinomyces bovis

D) Mycobacterium bovis

 

25. Which phase of bacterial growth is also known as exponential phase and is a period characterized by cell doubling?

A) Lag phase

B) Log phase

C) Stationary phase

D) Decline phase

 

26. The definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona is

A) Horse

B) Dog

C) Opossum

D) Armadillo

 

27. Concentric ‘thumb prints’ striations and absence of spines are present in

A) Sarcoptes spp.

B) Cnemidocoptes

C) Notoedres

D) Chorioptes

 

28. Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by

A) Hyalomma anatolicum

B) Amblyomma americanum

C) Rhipicephalus microplus

D) Haemaphysalis spinigera

 

29. Chaetotaxy is the study of

A) Arrangement of spiracles

B) Arrangement of segments

C) Arrangement of denticles

D) Arrangement of bristles

 

30. Antrycide Prosalt contains Quinapyramine sulphate and Quinapyramine chloride in the ratio of

A) 1:2

B) 2:1

C) 1:1.5

D) 1.5:1

 

31. ‘Worm nest’ in cattle is caused by

A) Onchocerca gutturosa

B) Onchocerca reticulata

C) Onchocerca armillata

D) Onchocerca gibsoni

 

32. Gymnocephalus cercaria is the cercaria of

A) Fasciola hepatica

B) Fasciolopsis buski

C) Fasciola gigantica

D) None of the above

 

33. Irregular and raised necrotic areas in the liver of turkey are seen due to infection of

A) Trichomonas gallinae

B) Tetratrichomonas gallinarum

C) Hexamita meleagridis

D) Histomonas meleagridis

 

34. Mango fly is the common name of

A) Chrysomia bezziana

B) Cordylobia anthropophaga

C) Calliphora erythrocephala

D) Chrysops dimidiata

 

35. Kinetoplast is absent in

A) Trypanosoma evansi

B) Trypanosoma equiperdum

C) Trypanosoma equinum

D) Trypanosoma brucei

 

36. A single evaginated scolex is present in

A) Cysticercus

B) Coenurus

C) Hydatid

D) Cysticercoid

 

37. Fainee’s criteria guidelines are used for the diagnosis of

A) Listeriosis

B) Glanders

C) Leptospirosis

D) Brucellosis

 

38. Prevalence and incidence of a population, respectively can be studied by

A) Case control and cohort study

B) Cross sectional and cohort study

C) Cohort and case control study

D) Cohort and cross sectional study

 

39. __________________ and __________________ microorganism indicates recent and old faecal pollution of water respectively.

A) Escherichia coli and faecal streptococci

B) Faecal streptococci and Clostridium welchii

C) Staphylococcus and Clostridium welchii

D) Clostridium welchii and faecal streptococci

 

40. Most Probable number (MPN) index of water sample is interpreted by

A) Fainee’s criteria

B) McCardy table

C) CLSI guidelines

D) EUCAST guidelines

 

41. Which test is used for detection of icterus in cattle carcass?

A) Peroxide test

B) Delvo test

C) Remington and Fowrie test

D) Resazurin test

 

42. “One medicine” concept was studied and authored in book Veterinary Medicine and Human Health in detail by

A) J.H.Steele

B) Calvin Schwabe

C) John Snow

D) James Lind

 

43. About 60 cases of Japanese encephalitis (JE) are reported in this region per week, slightly less than national average. This particular situation reflects

A) Epidemic disease

B) Pandemic disease

C) Endemic disease

D) Sporadic disease

 

44. Sensitivity and specificity in a diagnostic test indicates

A) True positives and true negatives

B) False positives and false negatives

C) True positives and false negatives

D) False positive and true negatives

 

45. Verotoxin is associated with which pathotype?

A) Shigatoxin producing coli

B) Enterotoxigenic coli

C) Enteroinvasive coli

D) Enterohaemorrhagic coli

 

46. In comparing the growth condition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis growth can be enhanced by

A) Pyruvate

B) Glycerol

C) Acetic acid

D) All of the above

 

47. For which zoonotic disease infective dose for human may be just a single organism?

A) Tetanus

B) Q fever

C) Tuberculosis

D) Anthrax

 

48. Desirable limit for turbidity of water sample is

A) < 5 NTU

B) > 5 NTU

C) 5 NTU

D) 10 NTU

 

49. National Institute of High Security Animal Disease (NIHSAD) is located at

A) Bangalore

B) Kasauli

C) Mukhteshwar

D) Bhopal

 

50. Orange staining of surgical instruments is due to

A) High pH detergent

B) Improper soaking in water

C) Increased chlorhexidine use

D) All the above

 

51. Vascular anastomoses should be performed with

A) Monofilament non absorbable material

B) Monofilament absorbable material

C) Multifilament absorbable material

D) Multifilament non absorbable material

 

52. Cystotomy with spillage of infected urine into abdomen comes under

A) Contaminated wound

B) Dirty wound

C) Clean contaminated wound

D) None of the above

 

53. Magimix cocktail contains

A) Butorphanol-acepromazine-detomidine

B) Butorphanol-acepromazine-ketamine

C) Butorphanol-acepromazine-clanazolam

D) Butorphanol-acepromazine-xylazine

 

54. Choledochoduodenostomy refers to surgical anastomosis of the

A) Common bile duct to the duodenum

B) Gallbladder to the duodenum

C) Cystic duct to the duodenum

D) None of the above

 

55. Kiwifruit like appearance in ultrasonography is indicative of

A) Transitional cell carcinoma

B) Gall bladder mucocele

C) Portosystemic shunt

D) Hepatocellular carcinoma

 

56. Hobday surgery is performed for

A) Guttural pouch empyema

B) Dorsal displacement of soft palate

C) Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

D) Gastric dilatation

 

57. Tibial compression test is used to diagnose

A) Cruciate ligament rupture

B) Tibial tuberosity avulsion

C) Patellar luxation

D) Valgus deformity

 

58. Fractures running through the physis and a portion of the metaphysic comes under which category

A) Salter-Harris type I

B) Salter-Harris type II

C) Salter-Harris type III

D) Salter-Harris type IV

 

59. Fixation of an intestinal segment to the body wall denotes

A) Enteroenteropexy

B) Enteropexy

C) Enterotomy

D) Enterostomy

 

60. Fluorescein dye test is done to diagnose

A) Deep corneal ulcer

B) Glaucoma

C) Diabetic cataract

D) Nasolacrimal duct block

 

61. A standard skin staple is made of stainless steel of grade

A) 420

B) 420X

C) 316L

D) 304

 

62. Carbon dioxide laser provides

A) Less bleeding

B) Less pain

C) Less healing capacity in wounds

D) Both A and B

 

63. Radiographic diagnosis of feline idiopathic megacolon compares colon diameter to length of

A) L5

B) L2

C) L3

D) L4

 

64. Neonatal calves become hypothermic in

A) First 6 hr after birth

B) Immediately after birth

C) First 24 hr after birth

D) First week after birth

 

65. Biphasic fever present in

A) CD

B) Strangle in horse

C) Both A and B

D) ICH

 

66. 100ml of calcium borogluconate contains

A) 1.5gm of calcium

B) 2.14gm of calcium

C) 1gm of cacium

D) None of the above

 

67. Normal range of base excess in large animal is

A) 10-20mmol/L

B) 22-30mmol/L

C) 5-10mmol/L

D) 0-6mmol/L

 

68. Which of the following is true dehydration

A) Hypertonic dehydration

B) Hypotonic dehydration

C) Isotonic dehydration

D) Both B and C

 

69. 25% magsulf is

A) Hypertonic acidifying

B) Hypertonic alkalinizing

C) Isotonic alkalinizing

D) Isotonic acidifying

 

70. Drug of choice in sand colic is

A) Psyllium @ 1mg/kg BW

B) Psyllium @ 5mg/kg BW

C) Magsulph@ 200-400ml

D) 1 part Psyllium and 3 part magsulph

 

71. Struvite is

A) Magnesium ammonium sulphate

B) Sodium ammonium phosphate

C) Magnesium ammonium phosphate

D) Sodium ammonium sulphate

 

72. Fluid splashing sound in left flank is caused by

A) LDA

B) Vagal indigestion

C) Grain overload

D) Both B and C

 

73. Crooked calf disease is caused by

A) Lupinus spp.

B) Veratrum spp.

C) Oxytropis

D) Both B and C

 

74. Toxic line in horses seen in

A) Lead toxicosis

B) Arsenic poisoning

C) Colic

D) Both A and C

 

75. Which of the following is isotonic solution?

A) Lactated Ringer’s solution

B) Ringer’s solution

C) Carbicarb

D) Both B and C

 

76. Follicle appear as ________________ during ultrasonographic examination.

A) Hyperechoic structure

B) Hypoechoic structure

C) Anechoic structure

D) Echoic structure

 

77. Preovulatory luteinization of follicles occurs in ________________

A) Camel

B) Buffalo

C) Goat

D) Bitch

 

78. Which of the following is the time of ovulation in sow?

A) At the end of estrus

B) 24- 30 hrs after onset estrus

C) 35- 40 hrs after onset of estrus

D) 35- 40 hrs after end of estrus

 

79. Most common cause of dystocia in swine is

A) Primary uterine inertia

B) Secondary uterine inertia

C) Abnormal postures

D) Both A and B

 

80. Oblique ventro- vertical presentation represents ___________________

A) Breech presentation

B) Dog sitting posture

C) Vertex posture

D) Poll presentation

 

81. Bartlett technique is used for diagnosis of ___________________

A) Trichomoniasis

B) Brucellosis

C) Vibriosis

D) IBR- IPV

 

82. Tightly coiling of principle piece over middle piece is

A) Knobbed sperm defect

B) Diadem defect

C) Dag defect

D) Cork- screw defect

 

83. Elongation of blastocyst does not occurs in

A) Cow

B) Buffalo

C) Sheep

D) Mare

 

84. Which of the following hormone is responsible for postpartum anestrus in the cattle?

A) Progesterone

B) Estrogen

C) Oxytocin

D) Prolactin

 

85. Which hormone releases during Ferguson’s reflex?

A) LH

B) FSH

C) PGF2 alpha

D) Oxytocin

 

86. Bloated bull frog condition is characteristics of ___________________

A) Hydroamnion

B) Hydroallanotois

C) Hydrocephalus

D) Both A and B

 

87. Potato soup color pus is observed in _________________________

A) Vibriosis

B) Brucellosis

C) Trichomoniasis

D) Both A and C

 

88. Length of bull spermatozoa is ____________ micron

A) 40-50

B) 50-60

C) 60-70

D) 70-80

 

89. Site of fertilization in animals is

A) Ampullae

B) Isthmus

C) Infundibulum

D) Ampullary- isthmus junction

 

90. The colour of Chylothorax fluid is

A) Colourless

B) Red

C) White

D) Greenish

 

91. Physiological anestrum is noticed during

A) Pregnancy

B) Mummification

C) Pyometra

D) Psedopregnancy

 

92. Which of the following is not a critical event in the process of irreversible cell injury?

A) Loss of Mitochondrial function

B) Calcium influx

C) Lipid accumulation

D) Loss of membrane integrity

 

93. Sudoriferous cyst involves

A) Sweat gland

B) Sebaceous gland

C) Tarsal gland

D) Thyroid gland

 

94. Which of the following cells are not present in parathyroid gland?

A) Adipocytes

B) Chief cells

C) Parafollicular cells

D) Oxyphil cell

 

95. Case fatality rate is

A) Rate

B) Ratio

C) Proportion

D) None of the above

 

96. Total number of bones in the forelimb of horse is

A) 40

B) 44

C) 46

D) 48

 

97. Which one of the following does not originate from mesoderm?

A) Circulatory system

B) Respiratory system

C) Genital system

D) Serous membrane

 

98. Placental hormone in cattle is

A) HCG

B) PMSG

C) Protein-B

D) Placental Lactogen

 

99. Which of the following is true for deer family?

A) Only males have antlers

B) Only female have antlers

C) Both male and female have antlers

D) Antlers are absent in both males and female

 

100. Which one of the following is a visceral bone in pigs?

A) Os penis

B) Os cordis

C) Os rostrale

D) Os opticus

 

101. Urolithiasis may be caused by the deficiency of

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin B

C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin D

 

102. The longest cranial nerve is

A) Trigeminal

B) Glossopharyngeal

C) Spinal accessory

D) Vagus

 

103. The nature of release of oxytocin during second stage of labour is

A) In spurts

B) In spurts and continuous

C) Continuous

D) Discontinuous

 

104. The preferred site for taking pulse in goats is

A) Femoral artery

B) Carotid artery

C) Coccygeal artery

D) Fascial artery

 

105. The equilibration period for buffalo bull semen is

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) 4 hours

 

106. Reed-Sternberg giant cells are found in

A) Erythroid leucosis

B) Basal cell carcinoma

C) Multiple myeloma

D) Hodgkin’s disease

 

107. Renal coccidiosis in equines is caused by

A) Eimeria leukarti

B) Eimeria solipedium

C) Klossiela equi

D) Eimeria uniungulata

 

108. Chicken infectious anaemia virus belongs to

A) Parvovirus

B) Gyrovirus

C) Erythrovirus

D) Dependovirus

 

109. Cyanosis in congenital heart disease is caused by

A) Pulmonary valvular insufficiency

B) A right to left shunt

C) Aortic stenosis

D) A left to right shunt

 

110. Concentration of KMnO4 used for cleaning a wound is

A) 10%

B) 5%

C) 3%

D) 1%

 

111. ‘Scaly leg’ in Poultry is caused by

A) Sarcoptes scabiei

B) Cytodites nudes

C) Cnemidocoptus gallinae

D) Cnemidocoptus mutan

 

112. Hog cholera virus has affinity for

A) Epithelial cells

B) Endothelial cells

C) Nerve cells

D) Hepatocytes

 

113. False gid in poultry is caused by

A) Oestrus ovis

B) Hypoderma spp

C) Chrysomyia bezziana

D) Melophagus ovina

 

114. The nucleus of which of the following cell gives cart wheel appearance?

A) Goblet cell

B) Mast cell

C) Adipose cell

D) Plasma cell

 

115. Which of the following tumors is known as rodent ulcer?

A) Mast cell tumor

B) Basal cell carcinoma

C) Squamous cell carcinoma

D) Transmissble venereal tumor

 

116. Hyperfunction of which one of the following leads to Cushing syndrome?

A) Adrenal gland

B) Thyroid gland

C) Parathyroid gland

D) Pituitary gland

 

117. Which one of the following does not belong to genus Pestivirus?

A) Yellow fever virus

B) Bovine viral diarrhoea virus

C) Swine fever virus

D) Border disease of sheep

 

118. Which type of cells produces “Interferon-B”?

A) Macrophages only

B) N K cells only

C) Fibroblasts and epithelial cells only

D) CD 8+ T cells

 

119. Infectious extracellular form of Chlamydia is

A) Reticulate bodies

B) Elementary bodies

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

 

120. Serum sickness is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type I

B) Type II

C) Type III

D) Type IV

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 5.0

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 30.08.2020.

Rank Name of the candidate University Score
1 Harsh Jogi JAU, Gujarat 346
2 Rithika SVVU, Tirupati 341
3 Sahil Gahlian ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar 340
4 Navjot Singh Thakur CSKHPKV, Palampur 330
5 Shankar Ramasamy TANUVAS, Chennai 329
6 Arjun Shanavas KVASU, Kerala 325
7 Vijayraghvan DP TANUVAS, Chennai 317
7 Sakthi SP TANUVAS, Chennai 317
7 Isheeta Raina SKUAST-Jammu 317
8 R S Chuahan DUVASU, Mathura 315
9 Vikash DUVASU, Mathura 312
10 Pyari SVVU, Tirupati 303
11 Antra Gupta SKUAST-Jammu 298
12 Suryasmita Rath OUAT, Bhubaneswar 296
13 Athira Subash KVASU, Kerala 290
13 Gulshan DUVASU, Mathura 290
14 Shweta Panwar GBPUAT, Pantnagar 288
15 Vijaya Mahantesh KVAFSU, Bidar 287
15 Waseem Mirsab PT KVASU, Kerala 287
16 Vishal DUVASU, Mathura 286
16 Sumanmeet Kour SKUAST-Jammu 286
17 Sunita Yadav KVASU, Kerala 285
18 Chandni KVASU, Kerala 284
18 Ensha Lomiya KVASU, Kerala 284
19 Sreelakshmi KVASU, Kerala 281
20 Gaurav Tevatia GBPUAT, Pantnagar 275

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. Chayanika Das (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Neha Bisht (PhD Scholar, VPA, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Harpreet Kour (PhD Scholar, VPT, GADVASU, Ludhiana)

Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Damini Khawaskar (MVSc Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Jitendra Singh Gandhar (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS, Chennai)

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].

If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.

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Filed Under: Mock Tests, Recent Trends Tagged With: AIEEA, ICAR, JRF, mock test, Veterinary Science

Comments

  1. Prem Agarwal says

    02/09/2020 at 4:20 PM

    Subject wise mock tests will be highly appreciated.

    Reply
  2. Anonymous says

    05/09/2020 at 3:13 PM

    Deficiency of Vitamin A causes urolithiasis.
    Mango flies, belong to genus Cordylobia, not Chrysops.

    Reply
    • Dr. Amandeep Singh says

      06/09/2020 at 3:51 AM

      For 1st question you are right. Vit. A deficiency leads to urolithiasis but the 2nd answer of yours is wrong.

      Reply

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