Mock Test on VAS/VO/VS Exam 1.0
Answers are formatted BOLD.
1) The third degree burn is categorized when it involves
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Fascia
D) Muscles
2) Misplaced embryonic tissue with hair is
A) Ranula
B) Utachal cyst
C) Dermoid cyst
D) Dentigerous cyst
3) The normal exposure capacity of portable x-ray machine is
A) 40mA
B) 70mA
C) 50mA
4) 35mA
4) Which among the following drugs is used as cardiac stimulant?
A) Lignocaine
B) Dopamine
C) Naloxane
D) Doxapram
5) Which antibiotic will cross the blood-brain barrier without any inflammation?
A) Sulphonamides
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Tetracyclines
D) Cephalosporins
6) Antiseptic that is active in organic matter is
A) Tincture iodine
B) Acriflavin
C) KMnO4
D) Povidine iodine
7) Which one of the following is used for the management of cerebral edema in dogs?
A) Spironolactone
B) Saline
C) Ringers lactate
D) Mannitol
8) The agents used for sterilization of inanimate objects are called
A) Sterilization
B) Antiseptic
C) Disinfectant
D) Asepsis
9) Anesthetic agent having second gas effect is
A) Nitrous oxide
B) Isoflurane
C) Halothane
D) Both A & B
10) Diffuse, suppurative spreading inflammation of loose connective tissue is called as
A) Cellulitis
B) Phlegmon
C) Empyema
D) Both A & B
11) Maternal recognition of pregnancy is responsible for
A) Fetal growth
B) Implantation
C) Maternal circulation
D) Parturition
12) Transuterine migration of embryo is absent in
A) Bitch
B) Cattle
C) Sow
D) Both A and B
13) Among the following animals, pheromones are secreted in saliva foam in
A) Stallion
B) Bull
C) Boar
D) Ram
14) Case fatality rate is an indicator of
A) Infectivity
B) Pathogenicity
C) Duration of disease
D) Virulence
15) Outbreak of disease in avian population is known as
A) Epizootic
B) Pandemic
C) Epidemic
D) Epornitic
16) The weight of the ovaries at the time of birth in mare is about
A) 120-220 gm
B) 40-70 gm
C) 20-30 gm
D) 10-20 gm
17) “Fremitus” or “Thrill” or “Whirr” is first recognized at about ______________ days of pregnancy in cows
A) 30 to 35 days
B) 45 days
C) 80 to 120 days
D) None
18) Granulosa cell tumor is most common in cattle that cause occasional symptoms of
A) Nymphomania
B) Anestrum
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
19) In brucellosis abortion of pregnant cows occurs in which of the following trimester
A) 1st trimester
B) 2nd trimester
C) 3rd trimester
D) All the trimesters
20) During folliculogenesis, for the initial recruitment of the follicles which of the following hormonal conditions is required
A) Low FSH and High LH
B) High FSH and Low LH
C) Low FSH and high inhibin
D) High FSH and Low LH
21) In comparison to eCG and hCG, the hormones FSH and LH have ______________ biologic halves life.
A) Shorter
B) Longer
C) Equal
D) Not known
22) Which one of the following having the anti-estrogenic effect?
A) MAP
B) MGA
C) MRL4
D) CAP
23) Incomplete dilatation of the cervix of the ewe and doe is descriptively known as
A) Vaginal cystocele
B) Torsion
C) Ring womb
D) Bandl’s ring
24) Which of the following enzymes involved during the process of ovulation in cows?
A) Lipase
B) Collagenase
C) Hyaluronidase
D) Esterase
25) The number of FADH2 produced in TCA cycle is/are
A) 4
B) 1
C) 3
D) 2
26) Among domestic animals, hyperinsulinism is most commonly reported in
A) Horses
B) Cats
C) Pigs
D) Dogs
27) The clearance test which is used for the measuring Glomerular Filtration Rate requires
A) Inulin
B) Urea
C) Diodrast
D) Pah
28) Which among the following is the confirmation test for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)?
A) Complement Fixation Test (CFT)
B) Sandwich ELISA
C) Radioimmuno Assay (RIA)
D) All of these
29) Epizootic lymphangitis in horse is also known as
A) African farcy
B) Equine Farcy
C) Cutaneous Farcy
D) All of the above
30) Terry towelling effect is related to which fungal species
A) Candida
B) Dermatophytes
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Aspergillus
31) Allergic inflammation is characterized by increase in number of
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) Neutrophil
D) Eosinophil
32) Biphasic Van-den-berg reaction occurs in
A) Toxic jaundice
B) Haemolytic jaundice
C) Obstructive jaundice
D) All of the above
33) Progressive development of interstitial pneumonia in older sheep in which lungs have dense and rubbery consistency is seen in
A) Maedi
B) Visna
C) Both A & B
D) CCPP
34) Pseudo lumpy skin disease is caused by
A) Bovine herpes virus-1
B) Bovine herpes virus-2
C) Ovine herpes virus-2
D) Bovine herpes virus -5
35) Pseudorabies disease is also termed as
A) Mad itch disease
B) Infectious bulbular paralysis
C) Aujeszky’s disease
D) All of the above
36) Contagious ecthyma disease is also known as
A) Contagious pustular dermatitis
B) Orf
C) Scaby mouth
D) All of the above
37) Nerve paralysis and nodules in visceral organs are seen in
A) Mareks Disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Lymphiod leukosis
D) All of the above
38) Bacterial chromosome is
A) Single stranded and circular
B) Double stranded and circular
C) Single stranded and linear
D) Double stranded and linear
39) The characteristic “elementary bodies” in fowl pox are
A) Bollinger bodies
B) Borrel bodies
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
40) Currently Influenza A virus has ________________ antigen
A) 18HA & 11NA
B) 16HA & 11NA
C) 16HA & 9NA
D) None of the above
41) What is the most common laboratory culture media for fungal growth?
A) Thayer Martin medium
B) Cornmeal agar
C) Nutrient agar
D) Sabouraud dextrose agar
42) Athletic posture in birds is characteristically observed in?
A) Mareks Disease
B) New Castle Disease
C) Avian Leukosis
D) All of the above
43) SMEDI syndrome is caused by
A) Porcine Parvovirus
B) Canine Parvovirus
C) Feline Parvovirus
D) Bovine Parvovirus
44) Which of the following major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is linked with complement system?
A) MHC class I
B) MHC class II
C) MHC class III
D) All
45) Punched out ulceration of mucosa is the characteristics of which disease
A) Babesiosis
B) Theileriosis
C) Anaplasmosis
D) Aspergillosis
46) The drug of choice in acute anaphylactic shock is
A) Dexamethasone
B) Epinephrine
C) Atropine
D) Furosemide
47) General anaesthesia of equine is performed now a days by using
A) Chloral hydrate
B) Xylazine
C) Xylazine + Ketamine
D) Chlormag
48) Which of the following virus replicate in lymphocytes?
A) Canine distemper virus
B) Adenovirus
C) Mareks disease virus
D) All of the above
49) Which type of necrosis occurs in infarction?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Caseative necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
50) The drug of choice for coccidiosis in poultry is
A) Sulphaguanidine
B) Sulphaquinoxaline
C) Phthalyl sulpha thiazole
D) Sulphamethyl phenazole
51) The diuretic that cannot be given along with aminoglycoside antibiotics due to the risk of nephrotoxicity is
A) Furosemide
B) Mannitol
C) Acetazolamide
D) Spiranolactone
52) ________________ refers to the variety and variability among the living organism and ecological complexes in which they occur.
A) Ecosystem
B) Niche
C) Biodiversity
D) Environment
53) Hardness of water due to
A) Presence of Ca and Na salt
B) Ca and Mg salt
C) Na and K salt
D) Mg and Na salt
54) In India, Biological Diversity Act was enacted in
A) 1991
B) 1996
C) 2002
D) 2005
55) The predominant green house gases are
A) Carbon dioxide and water vapour
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Chlorofluorocarbon
D) All of the above
56) Model virus for tumor research work is
A) Rous sarcoma virus
B) Polyoma virus
C) Shope papilloma virus
D) Reo virus
57) The bacterium which has the capability to grow in the refrigerated foods and exhibit characteristic ‘tumbling motility’ at 250C is
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Campylobacter jejuni
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Listeria monocytogenes
58) Chief glucogenic VFA in ruminants is
A) Acetic acid
B) Butyric acid
C) Propionic acid
D) Valeric acid
59) Physiological effect of stress hormone secretion will be?
A) Stimulates tissue growth
B) Decreases lipolysis by adipose tissue
C) Increases gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidney
D) Mast cells to release histamine
60) Osmoreceptors are present in
A) Kidney
B) Pons
C) Medulla
D) Hypothalamus
61) Rigor mortis is an example of ________, which results from a depletion of ______ and a failure of cross‐bridge heads to ______ from actin.
A) Contraction; Ca2+; attach
B) Relaxation; ATP; detach
C) Contraction; ATP; detach
D) Relaxation; Ca2+; attach
62) Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called
A) Weasand
B) Middles
C) Bungs
D) Rounds
63) The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per
A) ISO
B) APEDA
C) OIE
D) FAO
64) Black discoloration of milk is due to
A) Serratia marcescenes
B) Pseudomonas fragi
C) Pseudomonas cynogens
D) Pseudomonas nigrifaciens
65) Read following statements and Choose correct option.
i) In Milk preservation, LP system is bactericidal to Gram negative organisms.
ii) In Milk preservation, LP system is bacteriostatic to Gram positive organisms.
A) Only i) is correct
B) Only ii) is correct
C) Both i) and ii) are correct
D) Both i) and ii) are wrong
66) In calf above 3 months magnesium is absorbed from the
A) Middle third of small intestine
B) Upper third of large intestine
C) Rumen
D) Abomasum
67) ISO 22000 is related with
A) Environment Management System
B) Food Safety Management System
C) Quality Management System
D) None of these
68) Parasitic aneurysm is seen in horse due to infection of
A) Ascarid worm
B) Strongylus vulgaris
C) Cysticercosis spp.
D) Paragonimus spp.
69) Milk spot is characteristic of
A) Trypanosoma brucei
B) Ascaris suum
C) Leishmania donovani
D) Spirocera lupi
70) East coast fever or January disease is caused by
A) Theileria parva
B) Theileria mutans
C) Theileria annulata
D) Theileria lawrensi
71) The cooperative society is an example of
A) Formal group
B) Informal group
C) Primary group
D) Territory group
72) The Etawah Pilot Project was started in
A) 1948
B) 1947
C) 1950
D) 1953
73) The first Extension Education Institute of India was established at
A) Anand
B) Hyderabad
C) Ludhiana
D) Nilokheri
74) The study based on complete enumeration of data is known as
A) Census survey
B) Pilot study
C) Sample Survey
D) All of the above
75) MOOC stands for
A) Multiple Open Online Course
B) Massive Online Open Course
C) Multiple Online Open Course
D) Massive Open Online Course
76) As per BIS recommendation level of urea feeding in total dry matter intake of dairy cattle should not exceed-
A) 1.0%
B) 3.0%
C) 2.0%
D) 10%
77) Most of the concentrates contains
A) <18% crude fibre & >60% TDN
B) < 60% TDN & >18% crude fibre
C) Medium in DCP and TDN
D) > 18% crude fibre & > 60% TDN
78) Crude protein required in creep feed of pig (% by mass) is
A) 16
B) 20
C) 23
D) 18
79) ‘Perosis’ condition in growing chicks is observed due to deficiency
A) Magnesium
B) Manganese
C) Cobalt
D) None of these
80) Whole grain feeding system in poultry is also known as
A) Cafeteria
B) Ad libitum
C) Free choice feeding system
D) All of the above
81) Avivastra is a cross of sheep breeds
A) Chokla/Nali x Rambuillet/Merino
B) Malpura x Rambuillet
C) Malpura x Dorset
D) Sonadi x Suffolk
82) As per BIS, the number of cows (400 kg), sheep (70kg) and pig (100kg) per 10m2 space for transportation are
A) 8, 25 & 20
B) 15, 40 & 50
C) 5, 10 & 15
D) 10, 15 & 30
83) As per 20th Census of Livestock, the goat population of India has increased by
A) 5.5%
B) 10.1%
C) 7.5%
D) 2.4%
84) Zebu cattle breeds having dished profile forehead and lyre horn are
A) Kankrej & Kherigarh
B) Kenkatha
C) Malvi and Tharparkar
D) All of the above
85) Barbering is noticed in
A) Rabbit
B) Rat
C) Mice
D) Guinea pig
86) How many pure lines are selected for producing a commercial layer?
A) One
B) Three or Four
C) Two
D) Five
87) Physiological zero temperature below which which embryo growth is arrested in eggs ______ ⁰F
A) 65
B) 75
C) 85
D) 95
88) Severe bluish green discoloration of yolk is due to feeding of
A) Alfalfa meal
B) Soya meal
C) Cotton seed meal
D) None of the above
89) Which of the following is common to Salseed, Sorghum and Jowar?
A) Mucilage
B) Tannin
C) Glucosinolate
D) Mimosine
90) Specific gravity of an egg is
A) 1.01
B) 1.07 to 1.09
C) 1.02 to 1.4
D) 1.2 to 1.5
91) A sample is randomly drawn from the population
A) To reduce the study to a manageable size
B) To ensure the size of full range of possibilities is included
C) To obtain normal animals
D) To obtain a representative group
92) If genotypic frequency of dominant homozygote is P= 0.05 and genotypic frequency recessive homozygote is Q=0.65 then find out the gene frequencies p & q
A) p=0.20 & q= 0.80
B) p=0.80 & q= 0.20
C) p=0.30 & q= 0.50
D) p=0.40 & q= 0.60
93) Crossing over takes place in between
A) Homologous chromosome
B) Non-homologous chromosome
C) Sister chromatid of homologous chromosome
D) Non-sister chromatid of homologous chromosome
94) Which of the following is a part of National Cattle Breeding Policy in India?
A) Grading up
B) Crossbreeding
C) Selective breeding
D) All the above
95) If a variable under study is transformed to another variable by changing origin and scale, the correlation coefficient is not affected by change of
A) Origin only
B) Scale only
C) Both origin & scale
D) None of the above
96) Which is NOT a correct match
A) Peak yield: Within 90 days
B) Toe cutting: Birds identification
C) Surti: Black band in neck
D) Charles Darwin: Pangenesis theory
97) Coffee colour urine in cattle is important finding in which of the following disease?
A) Trypanosomosis
B) Theileriosis
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) Babesiosis
98) Which is NOT a correct match
A) Sodium ascorbate: 0.2-1%: Oxidizing agent, stability
B) Monosodium glutamate: 500 ppm: Flavor enhancer
C) Poly Phosphates: 2-4%: Reduce cooking losses
D) Sodium chloride: 15-30%: Preservatives
99) Which is NOT a correct match?
A) Counter current Multiplier: Loop of Henle
B) Prolactin: Mammogenic hormone
C) Salivary centre: Medulla Oblongata
D) Testicular atrophy: Hypovitaminosis E
100) The most widely used drug for the treatment as well as prophylaxis of Surra is
A) Buparvaquone
B) Oxytetracycline
C) Antrycide prosalt
D) Diminazene
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on VAS/VO/VS Exam 1.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 6.30PM on 04.10.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | State/UT | Score |
| 1 | Sakthi | TN | 78 |
| 1 | Vijayraghvan DP | TN | 78 |
| 2 | Tarun Sahu | MP | 77 |
| 2 | Shivay | J&K | 77 |
| 3 | Seema | UP | 76 |
| 3 | Ishfaq Majeed | J&K | 76 |
| 4 | Sivakarthi | TN | 74 |
| 5 | Reshma | Kerala | 72 |
| 5 | RS Chauhan | UP | 72 |
| 5 | Sajad Ahmed | J&K | 72 |
| 5 | Mansi | J&K | 72 |
| 5 | Isheeta Raina | J&K | 72 |
| 5 | Vipul Chagotra | J&K | 72 |
| 6 | Apoorva Verma | UP | 70 |
| 6 | Shakir Rather | J&K | 70 |
| 6 | Navjot Singh Thakur | HP | 70 |
| 6 | Priyanka | MP | 70 |
| 6 | Pooja | Rajasthan | 70 |
| 6 | Deepshikha | UP | 70 |
| 7 | Naina | J&K | 69 |
| 7 | Neeraj Grover | Punjab | 69 |
| 7 | Anjul Verma | MP | 69 |
| 7 | Ishita | HP | 69 |
| 7 | Niti | CG | 69 |
| 8 | Ashu | MP | 68 |
| 8 | Sakshi Gupta | J&K | 68 |
| 9 | Antra Gupta | J&K | 67 |
| 9 | Dharampal | Rajasthan | 67 |
| 9 | Prashant Patel | UP | 67 |
| 9 | Vipin | HR | 67 |
| 10 | Kashif Khan | J&K | 66 |
| 10 | Rishi Nanda | Orissa | 66 |
| 10 | Simran Angral | J&K | 66 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
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In qustion no. 27 its INULIN & NOT INSULIN ….
#Plz consider…
Thank you Dr. Saab. The necessary changes have been made.