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Test paper of mock test (ICAR-Veterinary Sciences 6.0) with answers and toppers

14/09/2020 by Dr. Amandeep Singh Leave a Comment

Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 6.0

Answers are formatted bold.

1. Thiosulfate conjugation Phase II reaction is important for detoxification of

A) Mercury

B) Ptaquiloside

C) OPC pesticides

D) Cyanide

 

2. Most of the therapeutic drugs follow first order kinetics characterized by

A) Excretion of constant fraction of drug per unit time

B) Excretion of constant amount of drug per unit time

C) Excretion of variable amount of drug per unit time

D) None of the above

 

3. The ultimate toxicant of methanol causing ocular toxicity is

A) Formaldehyde

B) Acetaldehyde

C) Epoxides

D) Cyanide

 

4. The concept of drug receptor theory is credited to

A) Ehrlich and Langley

B) Dale and Black

C) Fleming and Ehrlich

D) Langley and Dale

 

5. The drug of choice for treatment of myasthenia gravis is

A) Edrophonium

B) Neostigmine

C) Atropine

D) Acetylcholine

 

6. Biphasic reaction on blood pressure is seen with the administration of

A) Adrenaline

B) Nor adrenaline

C) Dopamine

D) Dobutamine

 

7. Antiemetic drug ondansetron acts on serotonin 5HT3 receptors that are

A) GPCRs

B) Ligand gated ion channels

C) Enzymatic receptors

D) Receptors regulating gene transcription

 

8. Prolonged administration of sodium nitroprusside can result in

A) Fluoride poisoning

B) Lead poisoning

C) Nitrate poisoning

D) Cyanide poisoning

 

9. Statins act as anti-dyslipidemic drugs by inhibiting which of the following enzyme?

A) Dopamine hydroxylase

B) HMG CoA reductase

C) Vitamin K epoxidase

D) Rhodanese

 

10. The drug of choice for the treatment of central diabetes insipidus is

A) Insulin

B) Desmopressin

C) Mannitol

D) Verapamil

 

11. An example of an intermediate acting glucocorticoid is

A) Dexamethasone

B) Prednisolone

C) Betamethasone

D) Cortisone

 

12. A selective MAO-B inhibitor is

A) Tolacapone

B) Selegiline

C) Fluvoxamine

D) Dopamine

 

13. A skeletal muscle relaxant that is agent of choice for patients with hepatic or renal insufficiency is

A) Atracurium

B) Tubocurarine

C) Rocuronium

D) Vecuronium

 

14.Which of the following inhalant anaesthetic is also called as ‘laughing gas’?

A) Nitric oxide

B) Nitrogen dioxide

C) Nitrous oxide

D) Nitric acid

 

15. Choose a bactericidal drug among the following

A) Sulphonamides

B) Fluoroquinolones

C) Tetracycline

D) Chloramphenicol

 

16. Cutaneous myiasis is caused by

A) Musca

B) Fannia

C) Lucilia

D) Gastrophilus

 

17. Concomitant immunity plays important role in

A) Schistosomosis

B) Hydatidosis

C) Toxoplasmosis

D) Cysticercosis

 

18. Endozoites are alternative terms for

A) Sporozoites

B) Tachyzoites

C) Bradyzoites

D) Merozoites

 

19. The migrating larvae produce scarring of the internal wall of the aorta in the infection of

A) Toxocara canis

B) Draschia megastoma

C) Spirocerca lupi

D) Dictyocaulus filaria

 

20.‘TICK-GARD’ is a first commercially exploited recombinant vaccine against

A) Boophilus annulatus

B) Hyalomma antolicum

C) Boophilus microplus

D) Dermacentor andersoni

 

21. Which stage of Ancylostoma larvae are passed in the milk of bitch for a period of three weeks after whelping?

A) L2

B) L4

C) L3

D) L5

 

22. Inornate, eyes absent, capitulum small, festoons present, palps short and conical. A dorsal process is present on the trochanter of first pair of legs are characters of

A) Ixodes

B) Haemaphysalis

C) Dermacentor

D) Amblyomma

 

23. Uterus is rosette like and central in position is found in

A) Echinococcus granulosus

B) Taenia taeniaformis

C) Taenia pisiformis

D) Diphyllobothrium latum

 

24. Which stage is completely skipped in precocious strain of Eimeria tenella?

A) First generation Schizogony

B) Gametogony

C) Second generation Schizogony

D) Third generation of Schizogony

 

25. In which adult mite all the legs end in claws with a structure like a comb?

A) Otodectes

B) Notoedres

C) Cnemidocoptes

D) Cheyletiella

 

26. ‘Pirodog’ is a vaccine which is prepared from

A) Schizonts

B) Exoantigens

C) Sporozoites

D) Gametocytes

 

27. Which of the following flea has pronotal ctenidium only?

A) Echidnophaga spp.

B) Ceratophyllus spp.

C) Pulex spp.

D) Spilopsyllus spp.

 

28. Fractional sterilization was introduced for the first time by

A) Joseph Lister

B) John Tyndall

C) Edward jenner

D) Richard Petri

 

29. Demonstration of existence of phagocytic cells in blood and thus the discovery of phagocytosis was done by

A) Emil von Behring

B) Elie Metchinikoff

C) Fannie Hesse

D) Edward Tatum

 

30. ___________ introduced Complement fixation test for syphilis.

A) Felix d’Herelle

B) August von Wasserman

C) Robert Koch

D) Elie Metchnikoff

 

31. Which of the parasite prevents phagosome – lysosome fusion for the evasion of the immune response?

A) Leishmania spp.

B) Theileria spp.

C) Toxoplasma gondii

D) Trypanosoma cruzi

 

32. Cells divide in three planes, in a regular pattern, producing cuboidal arrangement of cells called as

A) Staphylococcus

B) Tetrad

C) Sarcinae

D) None of the above

 

33. _________are mutant organisms that requires a particular additional nutrient which the normal strains does not .

A) Lithotrophs

B) Autotrophs

C) Auxotrophs

D) Heterotrophs

 

34. Which of the following is not an exotoxin?

A) Diphtheria toxin

B) Leucocidin

C) Hemolysin

D) None of the above

 

35. Transforming principle was identified as DNA by

A) Avery Macleod

B) Griffith

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

 

36. Which of the following is not true?

A) Gracilicutes – bacteria lacking peptidoglycan in the cell wall

B) Firmicutes – bacteria with gram positive cell wall

C) Tenericutes – bacteria lacking cell wall

D) All of the above

 

37. Rinderpest shares similarities in structure and antigenicity with

A) Canine distemper virus

B) Measles virus

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above

 

38. The causative organism of pseudo-lumpy skin disease is

A) Capripoxvirus

B) Bovine herpesvirus

C) Swine poxvirus

D) None of the above

 

39. Limberneck in birds is caused by

A) Staphylococcus

B) Streptococcus

C) Actinobacillus

D) None of the above

 

40. Owl’s eye appearance of inclusion bodies is specific for cells infected with which virus?

A) Varicella zoster virus

B) Cytomegalovirus

C) Canine parvovirus

D) Herpes simplex virus

 

41. Disease in pigs that is also known as ‘blue ear disease’ is

A) African swine fever

B) Classical swine fever

C) Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

D) Pseudorabies

 

42. Genome of chicken infectious anaemia is

A) Circoviridae

B) Coronaviridae

C) Picornaviridae

D) Calciviridae

 

43. Which organism shows growth in presence of thionine and basic fuchsin?

A) Brucella suis

B) Brucella abortus

C) Brucella canis

D) Brucella melitensis

 

44. Which organisms grows on potassium tellurite agar?

A) Corynebacterium diphteriae

B) Campylobacterium jejuni

C) Salmonella Typhimurium

D) Mycobacterium bovis

 

45. Nestle ‘Maggi’ controversy is linked with the detection of alarming levels of

A) Mercury

B) Lead

C) Cadmium

D) Arsenic

 

46. Grow and Blow phenomenon is observed in

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Coccidioidomycosis immitis

C) Toxocara canis

D) Toxoplasma gondii

 

47. FSSAI is an agency of

A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

B) Ministry of Home Affairs

C) Ministry of External Affairs

D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

 

48. Seropositivity of KFD was found in recent times in

A) Pig

B) Dog

C) Cat

D) Cattle

 

49. 1st Director – General of WHO was

A) M. Kalpan

B) George B. Chisholm

C) Margaret chan

D) Tedros Adhanom

 

50. Tropical rain forest is

A) Autochthonous ecosystem

B) Man made ecosystem

C) Allochthonous ecosystem

D) None

 

51. Majority of population is affected in

A) Hypoendemic

B) Holoendemic

C) Mesoendemic

D) Hyperendemic

 

52. Term surveillance was given by

A) William Fur

B) John Snow

C) Cholera

D) Tansley

 

53. Soluble antibiotics can be eliminated from milk by

A) Ultrafilteration

B) Pasteurization

C) Heating

D) Storage

 

54. Q fever is a

A) Metazoonosis as well as cyclozoonoses

B) Saprozoonoses as well as cyclozoonoses

C) Metazoonos as well as direct zoonoses

D) None of the above

 

55. Human form of mad cow diseases is known as

A) Scrapie

B) CJD

C) AIDS

D) Rabies

 

56. Efforts to organize veterinary public health services in India were initiated in 1964 with the establishment of a Division of Zoonoses at

A) IVRI, Izatnagar

B) NICD, New Delhi

C) AIIHPH, Kolkata

D) GBPUAT, Pantnagar

 

57. Main cause of postmortem muscle softening is

A) Cathepsin-D

B) Cathepsin-B

C) Cathepsin-L

D) All of the above

 

58. Sequence of PM changes are

A) Rigor-algar-livor

B) Livor-algar-rigor

C) Algar-livor-rigor

D) None of the above

 

59. Autolytic changes occur more rapidly in

A) Brain

B) Liver

C) Kidney

D) All of the above

 

60. Direct FAT test can be performed in

A) Fresh tissue

B) Frozen tissue

C) Glycerolized tissue

D) All of the above

 

61. Fibrinopurulent pericarditis, airsac vasculitis and peritonitis are the characteristic findings in

A) NCD

B) Avian Influenza

C) Infectious Bronchitis

D) All of the above

 

62. Swallon liver with pin point spot with intranuclear inclusions body is the characteristic finding of

A) IBH

B) EDS

C) CIA

D) All of the above

 

63. The method specific for the demonstration of DNA is

A) The feulgen reaction

B) Acridine orange method

C) Lendrums phloxine tateazine method

D) All of the above

 

64. For the demonstration of urate crystal sample should be preserved in

A) Carney or formaline alcohol

B) Formalin

C) Absolute alcohol

D) Any of the above

 

65. Mouse inoculation test is performed for the detection of

A) Rabies

B) Prion disease

C) L. monocytogenes

D) All of the above

 

66. Sub endothelial hemorrhages in the papillary muscle of left ventricle of heart is common in

A) Rinderpest

B) FMD

C) Both of the above

D) None of the above

 

67. Intervertrebral disc protrusion are common in which of the following breed(s) of dog?

A) Dachshunds

B) Bulldog

C) Both of the above

D) None of the above

 

68. Supramammary lymph node congestion and enlargement is seen in

A) Brucellosis

B) Johns Disease

C) Tuberculosis

D) All of the above

 

69. Strain used for the diffrentiation of MD and ALC is

A) Pyronin stain

B) Danes stain

C) Pyruate stain

D) All of the above

 

70. Necrotic enteritis in birds is caused due to the

A) Cl. perfringes

B) Cl. colinum

C) Both of the above

D) None of the above

 

71. Haemorragic nephrosis is the characteristic finding of

A) Zn toxicity

B) Cu toxicity

C) Fe toxicity

D) All of the above

 

72. Which of the following is not the surge centre?

A) Anterior hypothalamic area

B) Preoptic nucleus

C) Ventromedian nucleus

D) Preoptic nucleus

 

73. The method of oocyte collection from live donor animals

A) Flushing

B) Follicle aspiration

C) Follicle slicing

D) Ovum pickup technique

 

74. During sperm sexing by flow cytometry, Y spermatozoa is given

A) Positive charge

B) Neutral charge

C) Negative charge

D) Either positive or negative charge

 

75. Age of bovine fetus can be calculated from

A) X= 2.0 (Y+21)

B) X= 2.5 (Y+21)

C) X= 2.0 (Y+17)

D) X= 2.5 (Y+17)

 

76. Detection of fetal sex in cattle by using ultrasonography can be possible at

A) 35-45 days

B) 45-55 days

C) 55-70 days

D) 70-90 days

 

77. Which of the following technique is used for detection of number of fetuses in bitch?

A) Abdominal palpation

B) Ultrasonography

C) Radiography

D) Relaxin concentration

 

78. Which of the following hormone is used for pregnancy diagnosis in bitch?

A) Progesterone

B) Estrogen

C) Prolactin

D) Relaxin

 

79. Number of cuts in complete fetotomy is

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 10

 

80. Fertile life of horse sperm is _________ hours.

A) 36-48

B) 48-72

C) 72-120

D) 120-150

 

81. Which of the following is minor sperm defect?

A) Pyriform head

B) Double head

C) Proximal protoplasmic droplet

D) Distal protoplasmic droplet

 

82. Which of the following cryoprotectant is a permeating cryoprotectant?

A) Sucrose

B) Raffinose

C) Ethylene glycol

D) Both A and B

 

83. Causative agent of lumpy wool disease of sheep is

A) Trichopyton verrucosum

B) Chorioptes bovis

C) Dermatophilus congolensis

D) Staphylococcus aureus

 

84. Marker vaccine against bovine brucellosis is

A) Strain 45/20

B) Strain RB51

C) Strain 19

D) Strain 99

 

85. Blitz therapy is used for eradication of mastitis due to

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Streptococcus uberis

C) Streptococcus agalactiae

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

 

86. Vallee’s vaccine is used for the control of

A) Listeriosis

B) Tuberculosis

C) Johnes disease

D) Blue tongue

 

87. The optimum age for vaccination against bovine brucellosis is

A) 2-4 months

B) 10-12 months

C) 4-8 months

D) 12-15 months

 

88. The killed vaccine against Brucella melitensis infection is

A) Elberg’s Rev I

B) Strain 19

C) 53H38

D) RB 51

 

89. Etiology of strawberry foot rot in sheep is

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Fusobacterium necrophorum

C) Dichelobacter nodosus

D) Dermatophilus congolensis

 

90. The strain of Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides used nowadays for vaccination is

A) KH3J

B) T1/44

C) V5

D) All the above

 

91. Conversion of iodine containing hormone T4 to T3 is affected by the deficiency of

A) Vitamin A

B) Selenium

C) Vitamin B

D) Zinc

 

92. A sulfonamide-based anticonvulsant that suppresses epileptic foci and blocks the propagation of epileptic discharges.

A) Clorazepate

B) Zonisamide

C) Sulfidrin

D) Felbamate

 

93. Comparative ruminal auscultation ( double auscultation of rumen ) is done to diagnose

A) LDA

B) RDA

C) Both LDA and RDA

D) Abomasitis

 

94. Excessive use of ammonia fertilizers in pastures or fodder crops may play a significant role in the etiology of

A) Bovine ketosis

B) Lactation tetany

C) Parturient paresis

D) Downer cow syndrome

 

95. Bacteria Bacillins stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator for

A) Gas sterilization

B) Steam sterilization

C) Cold sterilization

D) None of the above

 

96. Catoptric test is used to diagnose

A) Glaucoma

B) Opacities on cornea and lens

C) Retinal detachment

D) Proptosis

 

97. Which type of hernia is usually congenital?

A) Umbilical

B) Inguinal

C) Incisional

D) Hiatal

 

98. Obstructive oesophageal disease or choke is usually located at

A) Cervical esophagus

B) Thoracic inlet

C) Base of heart

D) All of the above

 

99. Inflammation of coxo-femoral joint is known as

A) Gonitis

B) Omarthritis

C) Coxitis

D) None of the above

 

100. The gait fault in which the foot is thrown inward in flight is called

A) Paddling

B) Winging

C) Plating

D) Rope walking

 

101. Which of the following is removed during spay?

A) Broad ligament and ovaries

B) Ovaries and uterus

C) Suspensory ligament and uterine horn

D) Oviduct and ovaries

 

102. Endometritis that results in fluid and gas accumulation in uterus is called

A) Physometra

B) Mucometra

C) Hydrometers

D) Pyometra

 

103. Which of the following is clinical sign of caval syndrome?

A) Ascites

B) Haemoglobinuria

C) Exaggerated jugular pulses

D) All of the above

 

104. During shock blood circulation is least affected in

A) Liver

B) Kidney

C) Pituitary gland

D) Adrenal gland

 

105. Which local anaesthetic is ineffective when applied topically?

A) Procaine

B) Lignocaine

C) Tetracaine

D) All of the above

 

106. Local anaesthetic act by

A) Affecting at Spinal level

B) Affecting at Na+ channel

C) Affecting at K- channel

D) Blocking axonal transport

 

107. ___________ binds to NMDA receptors.

A) Acetylcholine

B) Glycine

C) Adrenaline

D) Glutamate

 

108. Hageman factor is

A) Coagulation factor- X

B) Coagulation factor- VIII

C) Coagulation factor- XI

D) Coagulation factor- XII

 

109. ________________ is used for measuring wind velocity.

A) Wind wane

B) Hygrometer

C) Anemometer

D) Barometer

 

110. Receptor organ for balance in animal body is

A) Skeleton

B) Eye

C) Ear

D) Nose

 

111. The foremost signal for initiation of parturition mechanism is given by

A) Dam

B) Fetus

C) Fetal Membrane

D) Placenta

 

112. ____________ helps in reabsorption of avian seminiferous tubule fluid.

A) Testosterone

B) Estrogen

C) LH

D) FSH

 

113. Ferguson’s reflex is observed in ______________ stage of parturition.

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) All of the above

 

114. Avian photoreceptors are located in

A) Pineal gland

B) Eye

C) Hypothalamus

D) All of the above

 

115. Placental lactogen stimulates _________ and ________ growth.

A) Fetal, Bone

B) Fetal, Mammary

C) Mammary, Ovarian

D) All of the above

 

116. ______ number of teat(s) has _______ number of opening(s) in the non-lactating mare.

A) 2, 1

B) 1, 2

C) 1, 3

D) 1, 5

 

117. Impression of heart is seen in the liver of

A) Ox

B) Fowl

C) Horse

D) Pig

 

118. Elbow is a

A) Condyloid joint

B) Arthrodial joint

C) Ellipsoidal joint

D) Ginglymus joint

 

119. Oral breathing is not possible in

A) Equidae

B) Suidae

C) Ruminants

D) Canines

 

120. A sheet of pearly white fibrous tissue that takes the place of a tendon in flat muscles having a wide area of attachment is known as

A) Tendon

B) Aponeurosis

C) Ligament

D) None of the above

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 6.0

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 13.09.2020.

Rank Name of the candidate University Score
1 Sakthi SP TANUVAS, Chennai 314
1 Vijayraghvan DP TANUVAS, Chennai 314
2 Harsh Jogi JAU, Gujarat 312
2 Sreelakshmi KVASU, Kerala 312
2 Hardik A Rokad JAU, Gujarat 312
3 Navjot Singh Thakur CSKHPKV, Palampur 305
4 Pyari SVVU, Tirupati 292
5 Vijaya Mahantesh KVAFSU, Bidar 291
6 Ensha Lomiya KVASU, Kerala 287
7 Arjun Shanavas KVASU, Kerala 280
8 Kanika KVAFSU, Bidar 278
9 Ajnas KVASU, Kerala 276
10 Kanika Yadav KVASU, Kerala 272
11 Trisha Singhal LUVAS, Hisar 270
12 Naresh Kumar AVC, Rajasthan 266
13 Eshita Gupta CSKHPKV, Palampur 258
14 Apoorva Verma NDVSU, Jabalpur 255
15 Reshma TANUVAS, Chennai 250
16 Prakash Patidar NDRI, Karnal 248
17 Vikash DUVASU, Mathura 245
17 Sahil Gahlian IVRI, Izatnagar 245
18 Dhruv CSKHPKV, Palampur 244
19 Riya GADVASU, Ludhiana 241
19 V Vijay Kumar SVVU, Tirupati 241
20 Vishnu K KVASU, Kerala 240

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!

The mock test is developed by

Dr. Chayanika Das (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Neha Bisht (PhD Scholar, VPA, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Harpreet Kour (PhD Scholar, VPT, GADVASU, Ludhiana)

Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS, Chennai)

Dr. Dennis George (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)

 

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

 

If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].

If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.

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