Mock Test on ICAR PG Examination – Veterinary Sciences 6.0
Answers are formatted bold.
1. Thiosulfate conjugation Phase II reaction is important for detoxification of
A) Mercury
B) Ptaquiloside
C) OPC pesticides
D) Cyanide
2. Most of the therapeutic drugs follow first order kinetics characterized by
A) Excretion of constant fraction of drug per unit time
B) Excretion of constant amount of drug per unit time
C) Excretion of variable amount of drug per unit time
D) None of the above
3. The ultimate toxicant of methanol causing ocular toxicity is
A) Formaldehyde
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Epoxides
D) Cyanide
4. The concept of drug receptor theory is credited to
A) Ehrlich and Langley
B) Dale and Black
C) Fleming and Ehrlich
D) Langley and Dale
5. The drug of choice for treatment of myasthenia gravis is
A) Edrophonium
B) Neostigmine
C) Atropine
D) Acetylcholine
6. Biphasic reaction on blood pressure is seen with the administration of
A) Adrenaline
B) Nor adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Dobutamine
7. Antiemetic drug ondansetron acts on serotonin 5HT3 receptors that are
A) GPCRs
B) Ligand gated ion channels
C) Enzymatic receptors
D) Receptors regulating gene transcription
8. Prolonged administration of sodium nitroprusside can result in
A) Fluoride poisoning
B) Lead poisoning
C) Nitrate poisoning
D) Cyanide poisoning
9. Statins act as anti-dyslipidemic drugs by inhibiting which of the following enzyme?
A) Dopamine hydroxylase
B) HMG CoA reductase
C) Vitamin K epoxidase
D) Rhodanese
10. The drug of choice for the treatment of central diabetes insipidus is
A) Insulin
B) Desmopressin
C) Mannitol
D) Verapamil
11. An example of an intermediate acting glucocorticoid is
A) Dexamethasone
B) Prednisolone
C) Betamethasone
D) Cortisone
12. A selective MAO-B inhibitor is
A) Tolacapone
B) Selegiline
C) Fluvoxamine
D) Dopamine
13. A skeletal muscle relaxant that is agent of choice for patients with hepatic or renal insufficiency is
A) Atracurium
B) Tubocurarine
C) Rocuronium
D) Vecuronium
14.Which of the following inhalant anaesthetic is also called as ‘laughing gas’?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Nitrogen dioxide
C) Nitrous oxide
D) Nitric acid
15. Choose a bactericidal drug among the following
A) Sulphonamides
B) Fluoroquinolones
C) Tetracycline
D) Chloramphenicol
16. Cutaneous myiasis is caused by
A) Musca
B) Fannia
C) Lucilia
D) Gastrophilus
17. Concomitant immunity plays important role in
A) Schistosomosis
B) Hydatidosis
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) Cysticercosis
18. Endozoites are alternative terms for
A) Sporozoites
B) Tachyzoites
C) Bradyzoites
D) Merozoites
19. The migrating larvae produce scarring of the internal wall of the aorta in the infection of
A) Toxocara canis
B) Draschia megastoma
C) Spirocerca lupi
D) Dictyocaulus filaria
20.‘TICK-GARD’ is a first commercially exploited recombinant vaccine against
A) Boophilus annulatus
B) Hyalomma antolicum
C) Boophilus microplus
D) Dermacentor andersoni
21. Which stage of Ancylostoma larvae are passed in the milk of bitch for a period of three weeks after whelping?
A) L2
B) L4
C) L3
D) L5
22. Inornate, eyes absent, capitulum small, festoons present, palps short and conical. A dorsal process is present on the trochanter of first pair of legs are characters of
A) Ixodes
B) Haemaphysalis
C) Dermacentor
D) Amblyomma
23. Uterus is rosette like and central in position is found in
A) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia taeniaformis
C) Taenia pisiformis
D) Diphyllobothrium latum
24. Which stage is completely skipped in precocious strain of Eimeria tenella?
A) First generation Schizogony
B) Gametogony
C) Second generation Schizogony
D) Third generation of Schizogony
25. In which adult mite all the legs end in claws with a structure like a comb?
A) Otodectes
B) Notoedres
C) Cnemidocoptes
D) Cheyletiella
26. ‘Pirodog’ is a vaccine which is prepared from
A) Schizonts
B) Exoantigens
C) Sporozoites
D) Gametocytes
27. Which of the following flea has pronotal ctenidium only?
A) Echidnophaga spp.
B) Ceratophyllus spp.
C) Pulex spp.
D) Spilopsyllus spp.
28. Fractional sterilization was introduced for the first time by
A) Joseph Lister
B) John Tyndall
C) Edward jenner
D) Richard Petri
29. Demonstration of existence of phagocytic cells in blood and thus the discovery of phagocytosis was done by
A) Emil von Behring
B) Elie Metchinikoff
C) Fannie Hesse
D) Edward Tatum
30. ___________ introduced Complement fixation test for syphilis.
A) Felix d’Herelle
B) August von Wasserman
C) Robert Koch
D) Elie Metchnikoff
31. Which of the parasite prevents phagosome – lysosome fusion for the evasion of the immune response?
A) Leishmania spp.
B) Theileria spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
32. Cells divide in three planes, in a regular pattern, producing cuboidal arrangement of cells called as
A) Staphylococcus
B) Tetrad
C) Sarcinae
D) None of the above
33. _________are mutant organisms that requires a particular additional nutrient which the normal strains does not .
A) Lithotrophs
B) Autotrophs
C) Auxotrophs
D) Heterotrophs
34. Which of the following is not an exotoxin?
A) Diphtheria toxin
B) Leucocidin
C) Hemolysin
D) None of the above
35. Transforming principle was identified as DNA by
A) Avery Macleod
B) Griffith
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
36. Which of the following is not true?
A) Gracilicutes – bacteria lacking peptidoglycan in the cell wall
B) Firmicutes – bacteria with gram positive cell wall
C) Tenericutes – bacteria lacking cell wall
D) All of the above
37. Rinderpest shares similarities in structure and antigenicity with
A) Canine distemper virus
B) Measles virus
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
38. The causative organism of pseudo-lumpy skin disease is
A) Capripoxvirus
B) Bovine herpesvirus
C) Swine poxvirus
D) None of the above
39. Limberneck in birds is caused by
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Actinobacillus
D) None of the above
40. Owl’s eye appearance of inclusion bodies is specific for cells infected with which virus?
A) Varicella zoster virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Canine parvovirus
D) Herpes simplex virus
41. Disease in pigs that is also known as ‘blue ear disease’ is
A) African swine fever
B) Classical swine fever
C) Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome
D) Pseudorabies
42. Genome of chicken infectious anaemia is
A) Circoviridae
B) Coronaviridae
C) Picornaviridae
D) Calciviridae
43. Which organism shows growth in presence of thionine and basic fuchsin?
A) Brucella suis
B) Brucella abortus
C) Brucella canis
D) Brucella melitensis
44. Which organisms grows on potassium tellurite agar?
A) Corynebacterium diphteriae
B) Campylobacterium jejuni
C) Salmonella Typhimurium
D) Mycobacterium bovis
45. Nestle ‘Maggi’ controversy is linked with the detection of alarming levels of
A) Mercury
B) Lead
C) Cadmium
D) Arsenic
46. Grow and Blow phenomenon is observed in
A) Cryptosporidium parvum
B) Coccidioidomycosis immitis
C) Toxocara canis
D) Toxoplasma gondii
47. FSSAI is an agency of
A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of External Affairs
D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
48. Seropositivity of KFD was found in recent times in
A) Pig
B) Dog
C) Cat
D) Cattle
49. 1st Director – General of WHO was
A) M. Kalpan
B) George B. Chisholm
C) Margaret chan
D) Tedros Adhanom
50. Tropical rain forest is
A) Autochthonous ecosystem
B) Man made ecosystem
C) Allochthonous ecosystem
D) None
51. Majority of population is affected in
A) Hypoendemic
B) Holoendemic
C) Mesoendemic
D) Hyperendemic
52. Term surveillance was given by
A) William Fur
B) John Snow
C) Cholera
D) Tansley
53. Soluble antibiotics can be eliminated from milk by
A) Ultrafilteration
B) Pasteurization
C) Heating
D) Storage
54. Q fever is a
A) Metazoonosis as well as cyclozoonoses
B) Saprozoonoses as well as cyclozoonoses
C) Metazoonos as well as direct zoonoses
D) None of the above
55. Human form of mad cow diseases is known as
A) Scrapie
B) CJD
C) AIDS
D) Rabies
56. Efforts to organize veterinary public health services in India were initiated in 1964 with the establishment of a Division of Zoonoses at
A) IVRI, Izatnagar
B) NICD, New Delhi
C) AIIHPH, Kolkata
D) GBPUAT, Pantnagar
57. Main cause of postmortem muscle softening is
A) Cathepsin-D
B) Cathepsin-B
C) Cathepsin-L
D) All of the above
58. Sequence of PM changes are
A) Rigor-algar-livor
B) Livor-algar-rigor
C) Algar-livor-rigor
D) None of the above
59. Autolytic changes occur more rapidly in
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) All of the above
60. Direct FAT test can be performed in
A) Fresh tissue
B) Frozen tissue
C) Glycerolized tissue
D) All of the above
61. Fibrinopurulent pericarditis, airsac vasculitis and peritonitis are the characteristic findings in
A) NCD
B) Avian Influenza
C) Infectious Bronchitis
D) All of the above
62. Swallon liver with pin point spot with intranuclear inclusions body is the characteristic finding of
A) IBH
B) EDS
C) CIA
D) All of the above
63. The method specific for the demonstration of DNA is
A) The feulgen reaction
B) Acridine orange method
C) Lendrums phloxine tateazine method
D) All of the above
64. For the demonstration of urate crystal sample should be preserved in
A) Carney or formaline alcohol
B) Formalin
C) Absolute alcohol
D) Any of the above
65. Mouse inoculation test is performed for the detection of
A) Rabies
B) Prion disease
C) L. monocytogenes
D) All of the above
66. Sub endothelial hemorrhages in the papillary muscle of left ventricle of heart is common in
A) Rinderpest
B) FMD
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
67. Intervertrebral disc protrusion are common in which of the following breed(s) of dog?
A) Dachshunds
B) Bulldog
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
68. Supramammary lymph node congestion and enlargement is seen in
A) Brucellosis
B) Johns Disease
C) Tuberculosis
D) All of the above
69. Strain used for the diffrentiation of MD and ALC is
A) Pyronin stain
B) Danes stain
C) Pyruate stain
D) All of the above
70. Necrotic enteritis in birds is caused due to the
A) Cl. perfringes
B) Cl. colinum
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
71. Haemorragic nephrosis is the characteristic finding of
A) Zn toxicity
B) Cu toxicity
C) Fe toxicity
D) All of the above
72. Which of the following is not the surge centre?
A) Anterior hypothalamic area
B) Preoptic nucleus
C) Ventromedian nucleus
D) Preoptic nucleus
73. The method of oocyte collection from live donor animals
A) Flushing
B) Follicle aspiration
C) Follicle slicing
D) Ovum pickup technique
74. During sperm sexing by flow cytometry, Y spermatozoa is given
A) Positive charge
B) Neutral charge
C) Negative charge
D) Either positive or negative charge
75. Age of bovine fetus can be calculated from
A) X= 2.0 (Y+21)
B) X= 2.5 (Y+21)
C) X= 2.0 (Y+17)
D) X= 2.5 (Y+17)
76. Detection of fetal sex in cattle by using ultrasonography can be possible at
A) 35-45 days
B) 45-55 days
C) 55-70 days
D) 70-90 days
77. Which of the following technique is used for detection of number of fetuses in bitch?
A) Abdominal palpation
B) Ultrasonography
C) Radiography
D) Relaxin concentration
78. Which of the following hormone is used for pregnancy diagnosis in bitch?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Prolactin
D) Relaxin
79. Number of cuts in complete fetotomy is
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
80. Fertile life of horse sperm is _________ hours.
A) 36-48
B) 48-72
C) 72-120
D) 120-150
81. Which of the following is minor sperm defect?
A) Pyriform head
B) Double head
C) Proximal protoplasmic droplet
D) Distal protoplasmic droplet
82. Which of the following cryoprotectant is a permeating cryoprotectant?
A) Sucrose
B) Raffinose
C) Ethylene glycol
D) Both A and B
83. Causative agent of lumpy wool disease of sheep is
A) Trichopyton verrucosum
B) Chorioptes bovis
C) Dermatophilus congolensis
D) Staphylococcus aureus
84. Marker vaccine against bovine brucellosis is
A) Strain 45/20
B) Strain RB51
C) Strain 19
D) Strain 99
85. Blitz therapy is used for eradication of mastitis due to
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus uberis
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
86. Vallee’s vaccine is used for the control of
A) Listeriosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Johnes disease
D) Blue tongue
87. The optimum age for vaccination against bovine brucellosis is
A) 2-4 months
B) 10-12 months
C) 4-8 months
D) 12-15 months
88. The killed vaccine against Brucella melitensis infection is
A) Elberg’s Rev I
B) Strain 19
C) 53H38
D) RB 51
89. Etiology of strawberry foot rot in sheep is
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Fusobacterium necrophorum
C) Dichelobacter nodosus
D) Dermatophilus congolensis
90. The strain of Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides used nowadays for vaccination is
A) KH3J
B) T1/44
C) V5
D) All the above
91. Conversion of iodine containing hormone T4 to T3 is affected by the deficiency of
A) Vitamin A
B) Selenium
C) Vitamin B
D) Zinc
92. A sulfonamide-based anticonvulsant that suppresses epileptic foci and blocks the propagation of epileptic discharges.
A) Clorazepate
B) Zonisamide
C) Sulfidrin
D) Felbamate
93. Comparative ruminal auscultation ( double auscultation of rumen ) is done to diagnose
A) LDA
B) RDA
C) Both LDA and RDA
D) Abomasitis
94. Excessive use of ammonia fertilizers in pastures or fodder crops may play a significant role in the etiology of
A) Bovine ketosis
B) Lactation tetany
C) Parturient paresis
D) Downer cow syndrome
95. Bacteria Bacillins stearothermophilus is used as biological indicator for
A) Gas sterilization
B) Steam sterilization
C) Cold sterilization
D) None of the above
96. Catoptric test is used to diagnose
A) Glaucoma
B) Opacities on cornea and lens
C) Retinal detachment
D) Proptosis
97. Which type of hernia is usually congenital?
A) Umbilical
B) Inguinal
C) Incisional
D) Hiatal
98. Obstructive oesophageal disease or choke is usually located at
A) Cervical esophagus
B) Thoracic inlet
C) Base of heart
D) All of the above
99. Inflammation of coxo-femoral joint is known as
A) Gonitis
B) Omarthritis
C) Coxitis
D) None of the above
100. The gait fault in which the foot is thrown inward in flight is called
A) Paddling
B) Winging
C) Plating
D) Rope walking
101. Which of the following is removed during spay?
A) Broad ligament and ovaries
B) Ovaries and uterus
C) Suspensory ligament and uterine horn
D) Oviduct and ovaries
102. Endometritis that results in fluid and gas accumulation in uterus is called
A) Physometra
B) Mucometra
C) Hydrometers
D) Pyometra
103. Which of the following is clinical sign of caval syndrome?
A) Ascites
B) Haemoglobinuria
C) Exaggerated jugular pulses
D) All of the above
104. During shock blood circulation is least affected in
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Pituitary gland
D) Adrenal gland
105. Which local anaesthetic is ineffective when applied topically?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Tetracaine
D) All of the above
106. Local anaesthetic act by
A) Affecting at Spinal level
B) Affecting at Na+ channel
C) Affecting at K- channel
D) Blocking axonal transport
107. ___________ binds to NMDA receptors.
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glycine
C) Adrenaline
D) Glutamate
108. Hageman factor is
A) Coagulation factor- X
B) Coagulation factor- VIII
C) Coagulation factor- XI
D) Coagulation factor- XII
109. ________________ is used for measuring wind velocity.
A) Wind wane
B) Hygrometer
C) Anemometer
D) Barometer
110. Receptor organ for balance in animal body is
A) Skeleton
B) Eye
C) Ear
D) Nose
111. The foremost signal for initiation of parturition mechanism is given by
A) Dam
B) Fetus
C) Fetal Membrane
D) Placenta
112. ____________ helps in reabsorption of avian seminiferous tubule fluid.
A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) LH
D) FSH
113. Ferguson’s reflex is observed in ______________ stage of parturition.
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) All of the above
114. Avian photoreceptors are located in
A) Pineal gland
B) Eye
C) Hypothalamus
D) All of the above
115. Placental lactogen stimulates _________ and ________ growth.
A) Fetal, Bone
B) Fetal, Mammary
C) Mammary, Ovarian
D) All of the above
116. ______ number of teat(s) has _______ number of opening(s) in the non-lactating mare.
A) 2, 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 5
117. Impression of heart is seen in the liver of
A) Ox
B) Fowl
C) Horse
D) Pig
118. Elbow is a
A) Condyloid joint
B) Arthrodial joint
C) Ellipsoidal joint
D) Ginglymus joint
119. Oral breathing is not possible in
A) Equidae
B) Suidae
C) Ruminants
D) Canines
120. A sheet of pearly white fibrous tissue that takes the place of a tendon in flat muscles having a wide area of attachment is known as
A) Tendon
B) Aponeurosis
C) Ligament
D) None of the above
No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].
Toppers of the Mock Test on ICAR PG Exam – Veterinary Sciences 6.0
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 7.30PM on 13.09.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | University | Score |
| 1 | Sakthi SP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 314 |
| 1 | Vijayraghvan DP | TANUVAS, Chennai | 314 |
| 2 | Harsh Jogi | JAU, Gujarat | 312 |
| 2 | Sreelakshmi | KVASU, Kerala | 312 |
| 2 | Hardik A Rokad | JAU, Gujarat | 312 |
| 3 | Navjot Singh Thakur | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 305 |
| 4 | Pyari | SVVU, Tirupati | 292 |
| 5 | Vijaya Mahantesh | KVAFSU, Bidar | 291 |
| 6 | Ensha Lomiya | KVASU, Kerala | 287 |
| 7 | Arjun Shanavas | KVASU, Kerala | 280 |
| 8 | Kanika | KVAFSU, Bidar | 278 |
| 9 | Ajnas | KVASU, Kerala | 276 |
| 10 | Kanika Yadav | KVASU, Kerala | 272 |
| 11 | Trisha Singhal | LUVAS, Hisar | 270 |
| 12 | Naresh Kumar | AVC, Rajasthan | 266 |
| 13 | Eshita Gupta | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 258 |
| 14 | Apoorva Verma | NDVSU, Jabalpur | 255 |
| 15 | Reshma | TANUVAS, Chennai | 250 |
| 16 | Prakash Patidar | NDRI, Karnal | 248 |
| 17 | Vikash | DUVASU, Mathura | 245 |
| 17 | Sahil Gahlian | IVRI, Izatnagar | 245 |
| 18 | Dhruv | CSKHPKV, Palampur | 244 |
| 19 | Riya | GADVASU, Ludhiana | 241 |
| 19 | V Vijay Kumar | SVVU, Tirupati | 241 |
| 20 | Vishnu K | KVASU, Kerala | 240 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position. Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
Dr. Chayanika Das (PhD Scholar, VMC, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Neha Bisht (PhD Scholar, VPA, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Suhas K.S. (PhD Scholar, VPT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Rohit Singh (PhD Scholar, VPP, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Harpreet Kour (PhD Scholar, VPT, GADVASU, Ludhiana)
Dr. Rohit Kurhe (PhD Scholar, VGO, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Diksha Gourkhede (PhD Scholar, VPE, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. Sandhiya M (MVSc Scholar, EXT, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
Dr. S. Kibson (MVSc Scholar, VSR, TANUVAS, Chennai)
Dr. Dennis George (MVSc Scholar, VMD, ICAR-IVRI, Izatnagar)
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].
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