Mock Test on Rajasthan PSC Veterinary Officer Exam
Answers are formatted bold.
1) Kangaroo sitting posture is due to the deficiency of
A) Biotin
B) Pantothenic acid
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D
2) First heart sound is associated with which valve closure?
A) Aortic valve
B) Pulmonic valve
C) Mitral and tricuspid valve
D) Both A and B
3) Pneumothorax is bilateral in
A) Cattle
B) Goat
C) Pig
D) Horses
4) In normal horses, which type of respiration is observed?
A) Abdominal
B) Costo-abdominal
C) Costal
D) None
5) Which antibiotic will cross the blood-brain barrier without any inflammation?
A) Sulphonamides
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Tetracyclines
D) Cephalosporins
6) Urea poisoning may result in
A) Acidosis
B) Alkalosis
C) Simple indigestion
D) Impaction
7) Which one of the following is used for the management of cerebral edema in dogs?
A) Spironolactone
B) Saline
C) Ringers lactate
D) Mannitol
8) If a veterinarian gives a false evidence, he can be prosecuted under section
A) 193 IPC
B) 198 IPC
C) 197 IPC
D) 199 IPC
9) Ketamine stun contains
A) Butorphanol-xylazine-ketamine
B) Butorphanol –diazepam-ketamine
C) Butorphanol-midazolam-ketamine
D) Butorphanol-acepromazine-ketamine
10) Radiological Feature of osteoarthritis
A) Osteophyte formation
B) Subchondal cyst formation
C) Subchondal sclerosis
D) All the above
11) Which suture pattern extends only upto the level of submucosa
A) Connell
B) Cushing
C) Both
D) None of the above
12) Cranial drawer sign is characteristic sign in
A) Patellar luxation
B) Cruciate ligament rupture
C) Achilles tendon rupture
D) Tibial tuberosity avulsion
13) Which suture pattern is used for flat tendons
A) Three-loop pulley
B) Bunnell suture
C) Far near near far suture
D) Kessler locking loop
14) Jones test is used to detect
A) Deep Corneal ulcer
B) Open-angle Glaucoma
C) Diabetic Cataract
D) Nasolacrimal duct blockage
15) Hyperthermia is common during anaesthetic recovey in
A) Canine
B) Bovine
C) Caprine
D) Felines
16) Presbycusis is a term used to describe
A) Age-related hearing loss
B) Age related blindness
C) Iatrogenic hearing loss
D) Iatrogenic blindness
17) “Fremitus” or “Thrill” or “Whirr” is first recognized at about ……. Days of pregnancy in cows
A) 30 to 35 days
B) 45 days
C) 80 to 120 days
D) None
18) The life span of primary spermatocytes in stallion is
A) 10 days
B) 19 days
C) 29 days
D) 45 days
19) In brucellosis abortion of pregnant cows occurs in which of the following trimester
A) 1st trimester
B) 2nd trimester
C) 3rd trimester
D) All
20) Post coital pyometra occurs in cows is due to which infection
A) Brucella
B) Tricomonas
C) Leptospira
D) Listeria
21) In comparison to eCG and hCG, the hormones FSH and LH have ……. Biologic halves life.
A) Shorter
B) Longer
C) Equal
D) Not known
22) Collection of embryo is done at the days after estrus
A) 2 days
B) 4 days
C) 6-7 days
D) 8-10 days
23) Incomplete dilatation of the cervix of the ewe and doe is descriptively known as
A) Vaginal cystocele
B) Torsion
C) Ring womb
D) Bandl’s ring
24) In which species luteinization of follicles occurs just before ovulation
A) Mare
B) Bitch
C) Sheep
D) Deer
25) Which of the following is responsible for elevation of serum calcium levels?
A) Calcitonin
B) Parathyroid hormone
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Testosterone
26) Prostate cancer in dogs can be detected by assay for which enzyme?
A) Alkaline phosphatase
B) Creatine phosphokinase
C) Aldolase
D) Acid phosphatase
27) The strain used for commercial preparation of penicillin is
A) Penicillium chrysogenum
B) Penicillium notatum
C) Penicillium americanum
D) Penicillium mutants
28) Which is the confirmation test for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)?
A) Complement Fixation Test (CFT)
B) Sandwich ELISA
C) Radioimmuno Assay (RIA)
D) All of these
29) The urine based lateral flow assays are based on which of the following assays?
A) ELISA
B) RIA
C) Western Blotting
D) Southern Blotting
30) The adaptive change that can be observed not having regenerative capacity
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Hypertrophy
31) Allergic inflammation is characterised by increase in number of
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) Neutrophil
D) Eosinophil
32) Biphasic Van-den-berg reaction occurs in
A) Toxic jaundice
B) Haemolytic jaundice
C) Obstructive jaundice
D) All of the above
33) Progressive development of interstitial pneumonia in older sheep in which lungs have dense & rubbery consistency is seen in
A) Maedi
B) Visna
C) Both A & B
D) CCPP
34) Blue-eye symptoms is seen in
A) Canine distemper
B) Infectious canine hepatitis
C) Canine parvovirus infection
D) None of the above
35) Fusion of kidney at the posterior poles results in ………
A) Hydronephrosis
B) Cystic kidney
C) Horse-shoe kidney
D) Duplication
36) In canine distemper, the inclusions are
A) Intracytoplasmic
B) Intranuclear
C) Both A & B
D) None of the above
37) Nerve paralysis and nodules in visceral organs are present in
A) Mareks Disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Lymphiod leukosis
D) All of the above
38) Bacterial chromosome is
A) Single stranded and circular
B) Double stranded and circular
C) Single stranded and linear
D) Double stranded and linear
39) Chickenpox disease is caused by which virus?
A) Pox virus
B) Measles virus
C) Herpes virus
D) None of the above
40) “Hot-cold” hemolysis phenomenon shown by?
A) Staphylococcal β (beta) hemolysin
B) Staphylococcal α (alpha) hemolysin
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) All of the above
41) What is the most common laboratory culture media for fungal growth?
A) Thayer Martin medium
B) Cornmeal agar
C) Nutrient agar
D) Sabourand dextrose agar
42) Athletic posture in birds is characteristically observed in?
A) Mareks Disease
B) New Castle Disease
C) Avian Leukosis
D) All of the above
43) Limberneck in poultry is caused by?
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Clostridium histolyticum
C) Clostridium butyricum
D) Clostridium botulinum
44) Which of the following major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is linked with complement system?
A) MHC class I
B) MHC class II
C) MHC class III
D) All
45) Majority of therapeutic drugs bind to which fraction of plasma protein
A) Fibrinogen
B) Albumin
C) Globulin
D) Ceruloplasmin
46) The drug of choice in acute anaphylactic shock is
A) Dexamethasone
B) Epinephrine
C) Atropine
D) Furosemide
47) General anaesthesia of equine is performed now a days by using
A) Chloral hydrate
B) Xylazine
C) Xylazine + Ketamine
D) Chlormag
48) Ivermectin is not effective against flukes and tapeworm infections because
A) Fumerate reductase is not present in flukes and tapeworms
B) Acetyl choline transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms
C) Mitochondrial phosphorylation is not present in flukes and tapeworms
D) GABA transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms
49) Specific antidote for Nitrate poisoning is
A) Methylene blue
B) Trypan red
C) Penicillamine
D) Calcium EDTA
50) The drug of choice for coccidiosis in poultry
A) Sulphaguanidine
B) Sulphaquinoxaline
C) Phthalyl sulpha thiazole
D) Sulphamethyl phenazole
51) The diuretic that cannot be given along with aminoglycoside antibiotics due to the risk of nephrotoxicity is
A) Furosemide
B) Mannitol
C) Acetazolamide
D) Spiranolactone
52) The constant presence of a disease or an infectious agent within a geographical area without importation from outside is called
A) Epidemic
B) Sporadic
C) Endemic
D) Pandemic
53) Hardness of water used for drinking purpose-
A) 50-100 mg/lit.
B) 100-150 mg/lit.
C) 150-200 mg/lit.
D) More than 300 mg/lit.
54) Highest refractive index among fat of all food animals
A) Poultry
B) Pig
C) Horse
D) Goat
55) The Bacteriological grading of milk is widely based on
A) Plate count
B) Total number of pathogenic bacteria
C) Result of milk Reduction Test
D) Cell count and sediment count
56) Which zoonotic disease is called as “Romantic Disease”?
A) Sporotrichosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Leptospirosis
57) The bacterium which has the capability to grow in the refrigerated foods and exhibit characteristic ‘tumbling motility’ at 250C is
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Campylobacter jejuni
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Listeria monocytogenes
58) Stimulus for secretion of ADH is
A) Hypernatremia
B) Decrease in osmolarity of the blood
C) Increase in osmolarity of the blood
D) Glycosuria
59) Physiological effect of Stress hormone secretion will be?
A) Stimulates tissue growth
B) Decreases lipolysis by adipose tissue
C) Increases gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidney
D) Mast cells to release histamine
60) A 3 year old horse has just won the Derby. A venous blood sample drawn from the jugular vein within 5 min of completion of the race would show that the hemoglobin and hematocrit have
A) Both decreased
B) Both increased by less than 5%
C) Both increased by approximately 10–20%
D) Both increased by approximately 50%
61) Rigor mortis is an example of ________, which results from a depletion of ______ and a failure of cross‐bridge heads to ______ from actin.
A) Contraction; Ca2+; attach
B) Relaxation; ATP; detach
C) Contraction; ATP; detach
D) Relaxation; Ca2+; attach
62) Most accurate sentence about avian air sacs?
A) Highly vascular membranes for gas exchange
B) The air sacs receive inspired air before it enters lung tissues
C) The volume of the air sacs is unaffected by body position
D) No significant gas exchange function and provide a tidal flow of gas
63) Which of the following is not an ideal candidate for DNA isolation from dogs.
A) Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs)
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Muscle
64) _____________________ is a small insert in milk which inhibit the activities of microorganisms without refrigeration.
A) Bactofugation
B) Pasteurization
C) Radiation
D) Milk Shield
65) Read following statements and Choose correct option.
i) In Milk preservation, LP system is bactericidal to Gram negative organisms.
ii) In Milk preservation, LP system is bacteriostatic to Gram positive organisms.
A) Only i) is correct
B) Only ii) is correct
C) Both i) and ii) are correct
D) Both i) and ii) are wrong
66) Choose the correct match(s) from following
i) Blue milk – synecyanea
ii) Pink or Red milk – Serratia marcescens
A) Only i) is correct
B) Only ii) is correct
C) Both i) and ii) are correct
D) Both i) and ii) are wrong
67) ISO 22000 is related with
A) Environment Management System
B) Food Safety Management System
C) Quality Management System
D) None of these
68) Non meat ingredients that are frequently used to extract proteins to achieve necessary binding in restructured meat are
A) Salts and nitrite
B) Salts and phosphates
C) Salts and ice-water
D) Phosphates and nitrites
69) Black spot in meat is caused by
A) Sporotrichum sp.
B) Cladosporium sp.
C) Penicillium sp.
D) None of these
70) The meet that are most susceptible to cold shortening are
A) Beef and lamb
B) Beef and carabeef
C) Chevon and lamb
D) Chevon and pork
71) The extent of perishability of livestock product can be reduced by
A) Processing
B) Immediate transport
C) Immediate distribution
D) Packing
72) The SGSY scheme was started during
A) 1997
B) 1998
C) 1999
D) 2000
73) Panchayati raj means a system of
A) Rule
B) Administration
C) Power
D) Government
74) The vanishing kind of farming practice due to population pressure in India is
A) Ranching
B) Mixed
C) Diversified
D) Large scale
75) Extension programme should be
A) Strictly permanent
B) Flexible
C) Permanent
D) Highly flexible
76) As per BIS recommendation level of urea feeding in total dry matter intake of dairy cattle should not exceed-
A) 1.0%
B) 3.0%
C) 2.0%
D) 10%
77) Most of the roughage contains
A) > 18% crude fibre &< 60% TDN
B) > 60% TDN & 18% crude fibre
C) Medium in DCP and TDN
D) > 18% crude fibre &> 60% TDN
78) Average nitrogen content in any feed protein is considered to be
A) 10%
B) 16%
C) 18%
D) 6.25%
79) ‘Perosis’ condition in growing chicks is observed due to deficiency
A) Magnesium
B) Manganese
C) Cobalt
D) None of these
80) ___________________ deficiency can lead to cannibalism and feather picking in poultry
A) Fat
B) Moisture
C) Salt
D) Calcium
81) Avivastra is a cross of sheep breeds
A) Chokla/Nali x Rambuillet/Merino
B) Malpura x Rambuillet
C) Malpura x Dorset
D) Sonadi x Suffolk
82) As per BIS, the number of cows (400 kg), sheep (70kg) and pig (100kg) per 10 m2 space for transportation are:
A) 8, 25 & 20
B) 15, 40 & 50
C) 5, 10 & 15
D) 10, 15 & 30
83) Slatted floor with wooden materials at distance from ground is used for goat housing in which region of India
A) North East
B) South
C) North West
D) Northern region
84) Zebu cattle breeds having dished profile forehead and lyre horn are
A) Kankrej & Kherigarh
B) Kenkatha
C) Malvi and Tharparkar
D) All of the above
85) Male sex drive in domesticated animals is also known as
A) Sexing
B) Maturity
C) Puberty
D) Libido
86) How many pure lines are selected for producing a commercial layers is
A) One
B) Three or Four
C) Two
D) Five
87) Parthenogenesis is more common in
A) Chicken
B) Turkey
C) Duck
D) Pigeon
88) Severe bluish green discoloration of yolk is due to feeding of
A) Alfalfa meal
B) Soya meal
C) Cotton seed meal
D) None of the above
89) The total number of sperms that are to be introduced into the female for obtaining desired fertility is
A) 25 Million sperms
B) 75 Million sperms
C) 100 Million sperms
D) 50 Million sperms
90) Specific gravity of an egg is
A) 01 to 1.06
B) 07 to 1.09
C) 02 to 1.4
D) 2 to 1.5
91) Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion
A) Standard error
B) Coefficient of variance
C) Standard deviation
D) Both A & B
92) If genotypic frequency of dominant homozygote is P= 0.05 and genotypic frequency recessive homozygote is Q=0.65 then find out the gene frequencies p and q
A) p=0.20 & q= 0.80
B) p=0.80 & q= 0.20
C) p=0.30 & q= 0.50
D) p=0.40 & q= 0.60
93) Transient genetic correlation between two traits is due to
A) Linkage
B) Pleiotropy
C) Both
D) None
94) Which of the following is a part of National Cattle Breeding Policy in India?
A) Grading up
B) Crossbreeding
C) Selective breeding
D) All the above
95) Inbreeding is used for commercial production of inbred lines in
A) Cattle, buffalo
B) Pig & poultry
C) Pig & buffalo
D) Poultry & cattle
96) Which among the following is known as most pathogenic tapeworm of poultry?
A) Cotugnia diagonophora
B) Raillietina tetragona
C) Davainea proglottina
D) Raillietina echinobothridia
97) Coffee colour urine in cattle is an important finding in which of the following disease?
A) Trypanosomosis
B) Theileriosis
C) Toxoplasmosis
D) Babesiosis
98) Snoring disease in cattle and buffalo in India caused by
A) Schistosoma nasalis
B) Syngamus trachea
C) Lungworm
D) Heart worm
99) Bottle jaw condition in ruminants is seen in which of the following disease
A) Fasciolosis
B) Haemonchosis
C) Amphistomosis
D) All of the above
100) The most widely used drug for the treatment as well as prophylaxis of Surra is
A) Buparvoquone
B) Oxytetracycilne
C) Antrycide prosalt
D) Diminazene
101) Which of the following districts of Rajasthan forms both the inter-state and international border lines?
A) Bikaner
B) Jaisalmer
C) Sriganganagar
D) Bharatpur
102) Which of the following districts have the most fluctuating percentage of annual rainfall?
A) Banswara
B) Jaisalmer
C) Bikaner
D) Jalore
103) What is the fort of Jaisalmer called?
A) Golden Kernel Fort
B) Sonar Fort
C) Both
D) None
104) In which district of Rajasthan, petroleum reserves have been found?
A) Sikar
B) Barmer
C) Nagaur
D) Jalore
105) Where is the famous Kaila Devi Fair held?
A) Bharatpur
B) Tonk
C) Dausa
D) Karauli
106) In the fair of Rajdevji, which among the following is the center of attraction?
A) Ghudla Dance
B) Neja Dance
C) Thirteen Pali Dance
(D) Garba Dance
107) Which folk deity is remembered for the treatment of snakebite?
A) Gogaji
B) Tejaji
C) Babuji
D) Ramdev
108) Who is worshiped as the liberator of cows and the god of serpents?
A) Father
B) Gogaji
C) Tejaji
D) Ramdev
109) Where is Karni Mata temple located?
A) Karauli
B) Kolayat
C) Nokha
D) Deshnok
110) Which among the following district of Rajasthan does not shares border with Pakistan?
A] Barmer
B] Jodhpur
C] Sri Ganganagar
D] Jaisalmer
111) Which dance form of Rajasthan is included in Intangible Cultural Heritage list of UNESCO?
A] Ghoomar
B] Kalbelia
C] Kachi Ghodi
D]Terah Taali
112) Keoladeo National Park is located in which district of Rajasthan?
A] Bharatpur
B] Ajmer
C] Jaipur
D] Kota
113) Which river of Rajasthan is known as ‘Van Ki Asha’ (Hope of the forest)?
A] Banas
B] Luni
C] Chambal
D] Mahi
114) Chaurasi Khambon Ki Chhatri or “84-Pillared Cenotaph” is located in which district of Rajasthan?
A] Bundi
B] Alwar
C] Jaisalmer
D] Jaipur
115) Rajasthan State Formation Day is celebrated on
A) 05, October
B) 17, August
C) 01, November
D) 01, August
116) In which district Central Camel Breeding Centre is located?
A) Baran
B) Jodhpur
C) Tonk
D) Jhunjhunu
117) The tomb of Maharana Pratap’s horse Chetak is situated at
A) Udaipur
B) Rajasamand
C) Ganga Nagar
D) Bharatpur
118) Which city is called as ‘Rajasthan Ka Nagpur’?
A) Kota
B) Tonk
C) Jhalawar
D) Bharatpur
119) The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Rajasthan district?
A) Udaipur
B) Baran
C) Dholpur
D) Banswara
120) State Animal of Rajasthan is
A) Chinkara & Camel
B) Tiger
C) Camel only
D) Chinkara only
121) Who was the first Chief Minister of the Rajasthan?
A) Pandit Hiralal Shastri
B) Mohan Lal Sukhadia
C) Hira Lal Devpura
D) Shiv Charan Mathur
122) In which city of Rajasthan, the observatory of the Indian Weather Department is located?
A) Jodhpur
B) Kota
C) Jaipur
D) Bikaner
123) Which city is known as the ‘City of Wales’?
A) Rajasamand
B) Alwar
C) Udaipur
D) Jodhpur
124) The largest poppy seed producing district in Rajasthan is
A) Udaipur
B) Tonk
C) Jaipur
D) Bhilwara
125) Which among the following is Rajasthan Tourism’s tagline?
A) A New Experience
B) The Incredible State of India
C) Full of Surprises
D) God’s Own Country
126) Which is the highest peak of Rajasthan?
A) Achalgarh
B) Bairath
C) Ser
D) Guru Shikhar
127) Which district in Rajasthan has the highest literacy percentage?
A) Bikaner
B) Kota
C) Jaipur
D) Tonk
128) The popular Jaswant Animal Fair is conducted in which district of Rajasthan?
A) Kota
B) Karoli
C) Bharatpur
D) Jaisalmer
129) Which city is famous for White Cement in Rajasthan?
A) Kota
B) Bhilwara
C) Gotan
D) Pushkar
130) The ploughed fields have been found at which among the following sites of Indus Valley Civilization in Rajasthan?
A) Bagor
B) Kalibangan
C) Ahar
D) Gilund
131) Which among the following gives the details about the history of rulers of Mewar from Bappa Rawal to Kumbha?
A] Varvath Inscription
B] Ranakpur Inscription
C] Raj Prashashti
D] The Inscription of Osian
132) Which among the following accounts of ancient Rajasthan provided an information upon land revenue records?
A] Khareeta Bahi
B] Hukumat Ri Bahi
C] Adsatta
D] Patta Bahi
133) Who among the following was the author of the “Nritya Ratnakosha”, which gives finest details about Indian music?
A] Kumbha
B] Bhojraj
C] Rana Raimal
D] None of the above
134) The Vijay Shahi coins were in use in which among the following areas of Rajasthan?
A] Jaipur
B] Ajmer
C] Jodhpur
D] Alwar
135) The “Manmori Inscription” has been a source of knowledge about history of which among the following areas of Rajasthan?
A] Mount Abu
B] Chittor
C] Udaipur & Mewar
D] Sirohi
136) The area in the vicinity of which among the following was earlier known as ‘Jangal Desh’?
A] Jodhpur & Bikaner
B] Bharatpur & Alwar
C] Nagaur & Sikar
D] Jaipur & Ajmer
137) The Phooldal Mela has been associated with which among the following sects of Rajasthan?
A] Ram Snehi
B] Sikhwal
C] Terapanthi
D] Bishnoi
138) Who among the following was responsible for throwing a Bomb to assassinate Lord Hardings in Delhi?
A] Pratap Singh Barhat
B] Jorawar Singh Barhat
C] Kesari Singh Barhat
D] Both A & B
139) Who among the following is generally believed to have started gold coinage in Mewar?
A] Bappa Rawal
B] Rana Sanga
C] Rawal Ratan Singh
D] Rana Kumbha
140) In which year Mughal Empire was replaced by the British Empire?
A) 1843
B) 1818
C) 1828
D) 1819
141) Which state is located North of Rajasthan?
A) Gujarat
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Punjab
D) West Bengal
142) Desert National Park is located at
A) Bikaner
B) Jaisalmer
C) Bhilwara
D) Kota
143) Total number of districts in Rajasthan are
A) 28
B) 33
C) 38
D) 24
144) Makrana town is famous for?
A) Suitings production
B) Crude oil
C) Marble
D) Edible Oils
145) Lake Foy Sagar situated at?
A) Bhilwara
B) Jodhpur
C) Bikaner
D) Ajmer
146) Largest Cement Producer of Rajasthan is
A) Chittorgarh
B) Pali
C) Sirohi
D) Nagaur
147) Where is the Headquarter of North-Western Railway located?
A) Udaipur
B) Chittorgarh
C) Marwar
D) Jaipur
148) Who among the following is the author of “Vir Vinod” which gives a history of Mewar?
A] Muhnaut Nainsi
B] Suryamal Mishran
C] Baankidas
D] Shayamaldas
149) Who among the following was the founder of Marwar Prajamandal?
A] Megharam Vaidya
B] Subhash Chandra Bose
C] Jaynarayan Vyas
D] Manikya Lal Verma
150) Rajasthan Public Service Commission was established in the year
A) 1947
B) 1949
C) 1951
D) 1953
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Toppers of the Mock Test on Rajasthan PSC’s Veterinary Officer Exam
Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 8.30PM on 30.07.2020.
| Rank | Name of the candidate | District | No. of correct questions |
| 1 | Ahi Chaudhary | Nagaur | 122 |
| 2 | Pooja Solanki | – | 120 |
| 3 | Basant Godara | Bikaner | 115 |
| 3 | Shahista Sareen | Bikaner | 115 |
| 4 | Amit Kumar | Bhiwani | 110 |
| 5 | Vikramjeet Singh | Bikaner | 109 |
| 5 | Kanika Poonia | Jaipur | 109 |
| 6 | Ravi Patel | Jodhpur | 107 |
| 7 | Priyanka Choudhary | Sikar | 105 |
| 8 | Sachin Patidar | Dungarpur | 104 |
| 9 | Jamta | Jabalpur | 103 |
| 9 | Suman | Churu | 103 |
| 10 | Nikhil | – | 102 |
| 11 | Ramesh Kumar | Jhunjhunu | 101 |
| 11 | Dharampal | Ganganagar | 101 |
| 11 | Saurabh Daria | Jhunjhunu | 101 |
| 12 | Jayshree | Jodhpur | 100 |
| 12 | Sahil Gahlian | Sonipat | 100 |
| 13 | Pushpa | Jaipur | 99 |
| 14 | Ankita | Churu | 98 |
| 14 | Priyanka Raj | Bikaner | 98 |
| 15 | Parmaram Gorachiya | Bikaner | 96 |
| 15 | Garima | Bikaner | 96 |
| 15 | Suvidhi Choudhary | Jhunjhunu | 96 |
| 16 | Shobha | Nagaur | 95 |
| 16 | Neelam Godara | Hanumangarh | 95 |
| 16 | Upendra Singh | Bharatpur | 95 |
| 16 | Gulab Raj | Bharatpur | 95 |
| 17 | Mohd Idris | Ajmer | 94 |
| 17 | Pooja Prajapat | Bikaner | 94 |
| 17 | Nitesh Yadav | Mahendergarh | 94 |
| 17 | Komal | Bikaner | 94 |
| 18 | Jeeshan Nabi | Bikaner | 93 |
| 18 | Anand | Nagaur | 93 |
| 18 | Rajeev Kumar | Alwar | 93 |
| 19 | Animesh Kunwar | Jhunjhunu | 92 |
| 19 | Babu Lal | Jalor | 92 |
| 20 | Rahul Kumar | Alwar | 90 |
| 20 | M. Tejaswi Sindhu Ratnam | Yanam | 90 |
| 20 | Dinesh Choudhary | Jodhpur | 90 |
| 20 | Manjeet Sharan | Delhi | 90 |
Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position.
Best wishes to all the aspirants!
The mock test is developed by
For any assistance, contact
Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]
Next Mock Test: Veterinary Sciences 3.0 – 02.08.2020 (Sunday).
Stay Tuned!
If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].
If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.
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