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Test paper of mock test (RPSC Veterinary Officer Exam) with answers and toppers

31/07/2020 by Dr. Amandeep Singh Leave a Comment

Mock Test on Rajasthan PSC Veterinary Officer Exam

Answers are formatted bold.

1) Kangaroo sitting posture is due to the deficiency of

A) Biotin

B) Pantothenic acid

C) Vitamin A

D) Vitamin D

 

2) First heart sound is associated with which valve closure?

A) Aortic valve

B) Pulmonic valve

C) Mitral and tricuspid valve

D) Both A and B

 

3) Pneumothorax is bilateral in

A) Cattle

B) Goat

C) Pig

D) Horses

 

4) In normal horses, which type of respiration is observed?

A) Abdominal

B) Costo-abdominal

C) Costal

D) None

 

5) Which antibiotic will cross the blood-brain barrier without any inflammation?

A) Sulphonamides

B) Chloramphenicol

C) Tetracyclines

D) Cephalosporins

 

6) Urea poisoning may result in

A) Acidosis

B) Alkalosis

C) Simple indigestion

D) Impaction

 

7) Which one of the following is used for the management of cerebral edema in dogs?

A) Spironolactone

B) Saline

C) Ringers lactate

D) Mannitol

 

8) If a veterinarian gives a false evidence, he can be prosecuted under section

A) 193 IPC

B) 198 IPC

C) 197 IPC

D) 199 IPC

 

9) Ketamine stun contains

A) Butorphanol-xylazine-ketamine

B) Butorphanol –diazepam-ketamine

C) Butorphanol-midazolam-ketamine

D) Butorphanol-acepromazine-ketamine

 

10) Radiological Feature of osteoarthritis

A) Osteophyte formation

B) Subchondal cyst formation

C) Subchondal sclerosis

D) All the above

 

11) Which suture pattern extends only upto the level of submucosa

A) Connell

B) Cushing

C) Both

D) None of the above

 

12) Cranial drawer sign is characteristic sign in

A) Patellar luxation

B) Cruciate ligament rupture

C) Achilles tendon rupture

D) Tibial tuberosity avulsion

 

13) Which suture pattern is used for flat tendons

A) Three-loop pulley

B) Bunnell suture

C) Far near near far suture

D) Kessler locking loop

 

14) Jones test is used to detect

A) Deep Corneal ulcer

B) Open-angle Glaucoma

C) Diabetic Cataract

D) Nasolacrimal duct blockage

 

15) Hyperthermia is common during anaesthetic recovey in

A) Canine

B) Bovine

C) Caprine

D) Felines

 

16) Presbycusis is a term used to describe

A) Age-related hearing loss

B) Age related blindness

C) Iatrogenic hearing loss

D) Iatrogenic blindness

 

17) “Fremitus” or “Thrill” or “Whirr” is first recognized at about ……. Days of pregnancy in cows

A) 30 to 35 days

B) 45 days

C) 80 to 120 days

D) None

 

18) The life span of primary spermatocytes in stallion is

A) 10 days

B) 19 days

C) 29 days

D) 45 days

 

19)  In brucellosis abortion of pregnant cows occurs in which of the following trimester

A) 1st trimester

B) 2nd trimester

C) 3rd trimester

D) All

 

20) Post coital pyometra occurs in cows is due to which infection

A) Brucella

B) Tricomonas

C) Leptospira

D) Listeria

 

21)  In comparison to eCG and hCG, the hormones FSH and LH have ……. Biologic halves life.

A) Shorter

B) Longer

C) Equal

D) Not known

 

22) Collection of embryo is done at the days after estrus

A) 2 days

B) 4 days

C) 6-7 days

D) 8-10 days

 

23) Incomplete dilatation of the cervix of the ewe and doe is descriptively known as

A) Vaginal cystocele

B) Torsion

C) Ring womb

D) Bandl’s ring

 

24) In which species luteinization of follicles occurs just before ovulation

A) Mare

B) Bitch

C) Sheep

D) Deer

 

25) Which of the following is responsible for elevation of serum calcium levels?

A) Calcitonin

B) Parathyroid hormone

C) Thyroid stimulating hormone

D) Testosterone

 

26) Prostate cancer in dogs can be detected by assay for which enzyme?

A) Alkaline phosphatase

B) Creatine phosphokinase

C) Aldolase

D) Acid phosphatase

 

27) The strain used for commercial preparation of penicillin is

A) Penicillium chrysogenum

B) Penicillium notatum

C) Penicillium americanum

D) Penicillium mutants

 

28) Which is the confirmation test for Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)?

A) Complement Fixation Test (CFT)

B) Sandwich ELISA

C) Radioimmuno Assay (RIA)

D) All of these

 

29) The urine based lateral flow assays are based on which of the following assays?

A) ELISA

B) RIA

C) Western Blotting

D) Southern Blotting

 

30) The adaptive change that can be observed not having regenerative capacity

A) Hyperplasia

B) Metaplasia

C) Atrophy

D) Hypertrophy

 

31) Allergic inflammation is characterised by increase in number of

A) Lymphocytes

B) Monocytes

C) Neutrophil

D) Eosinophil

 

32) Biphasic Van-den-berg reaction occurs in

A) Toxic jaundice

B) Haemolytic jaundice

C) Obstructive jaundice

D) All of the above

 

33) Progressive development of interstitial pneumonia in older sheep in which lungs have dense & rubbery consistency is seen in

A) Maedi

B) Visna

C) Both A & B

D) CCPP

 

34) Blue-eye symptoms is seen in

A) Canine distemper

B) Infectious canine hepatitis

C) Canine parvovirus infection

D) None of the above

 

35) Fusion of kidney at the posterior poles results in ………

A) Hydronephrosis

B) Cystic kidney

C) Horse-shoe kidney

D) Duplication

 

36) In canine distemper, the inclusions are

A) Intracytoplasmic

B) Intranuclear

C) Both A & B                     

D) None of the above

 

37) Nerve paralysis and nodules in visceral organs are present in

A) Mareks Disease

B) Tuberculosis

C) Lymphiod leukosis

D) All of the above

 

38) Bacterial chromosome is

A) Single stranded and circular

B) Double stranded and circular

C) Single stranded and linear

D) Double stranded and linear

 

39) Chickenpox disease is caused by which virus?

A) Pox virus

B) Measles virus

C) Herpes virus

D) None of the above

 

40) “Hot-cold” hemolysis phenomenon shown by?

A) Staphylococcal β (beta) hemolysin

B) Staphylococcal α (alpha) hemolysin

C) Clostridium perfringens

D) All of the above

 

41) What is the most common laboratory culture media for fungal growth?

A) Thayer Martin medium

B) Cornmeal agar

C) Nutrient agar

D) Sabourand dextrose agar

 

42) Athletic posture in birds is characteristically observed in?

A) Mareks Disease

B) New Castle Disease

C) Avian Leukosis

D) All of the above

 

43) Limberneck in poultry is caused by?

A) Clostridium tetani

B) Clostridium histolyticum

C) Clostridium butyricum

D) Clostridium botulinum

 

44) Which of the following major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is linked with complement system?

A) MHC class I

B) MHC class II

C) MHC class III

D) All

 

45) Majority of therapeutic drugs bind to which fraction of plasma protein

A) Fibrinogen

B) Albumin

C) Globulin

D) Ceruloplasmin

 

46) The drug of choice in acute anaphylactic shock is

A) Dexamethasone

B) Epinephrine

C) Atropine

D) Furosemide

 

47) General anaesthesia of equine is performed now a days by using

A) Chloral hydrate

B) Xylazine

C) Xylazine + Ketamine

D) Chlormag

 

48) Ivermectin is not effective against flukes and tapeworm infections because

A) Fumerate reductase is not present in flukes and tapeworms

B) Acetyl choline transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms

C) Mitochondrial phosphorylation is not present in flukes and tapeworms

D) GABA transmission is not present in flukes and tapeworms

 

49) Specific antidote for Nitrate poisoning is

A) Methylene blue

B) Trypan red

C) Penicillamine

D) Calcium EDTA

 

50) The drug of choice for coccidiosis in poultry

A) Sulphaguanidine

B) Sulphaquinoxaline

C) Phthalyl sulpha thiazole

D) Sulphamethyl phenazole

 

51) The diuretic that cannot be given along with aminoglycoside antibiotics due to the risk of nephrotoxicity is

A) Furosemide

B) Mannitol

C) Acetazolamide

D) Spiranolactone

 

52) The constant presence of a disease or an infectious agent within a geographical area without importation from outside is called

A) Epidemic

B) Sporadic

C) Endemic

D) Pandemic

 

53) Hardness of water used for drinking purpose-

A) 50-100 mg/lit.

B) 100-150 mg/lit.

C) 150-200 mg/lit.

D) More than 300 mg/lit.

 

54) Highest refractive index among fat of all food animals

A) Poultry

B) Pig

C) Horse

D) Goat

 

55) The Bacteriological grading of milk is widely based on

A) Plate count

B) Total number of pathogenic bacteria

C) Result of milk Reduction Test

D) Cell count and sediment count

 

56) Which zoonotic disease is called as “Romantic Disease”?

A) Sporotrichosis

B) Tuberculosis

C) Histoplasmosis

D) Leptospirosis

 

57) The bacterium which has the capability to grow in the refrigerated foods and exhibit characteristic ‘tumbling motility’ at 250C is

A) Yersinia enterocolitica

B) Campylobacter jejuni

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Listeria monocytogenes

 

58) Stimulus for secretion of ADH is

A) Hypernatremia

B) Decrease in osmolarity of the blood

C) Increase in osmolarity of the blood

D) Glycosuria

 

59) Physiological effect of Stress hormone secretion will be?

A) Stimulates tissue growth

B) Decreases lipolysis by adipose tissue

C) Increases gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidney

D) Mast cells to release histamine

 

60) A 3 year old horse has just won the Derby. A venous blood sample drawn from the jugular vein within 5 min of completion of the race would show that the hemoglobin and hematocrit have

A) Both decreased

B) Both increased by less than 5%

C) Both increased by approximately 10–20%

D) Both increased by approximately 50%

 

61) Rigor mortis is an example of ________, which results from a depletion of ______ and a failure of cross‐bridge heads to ______ from actin.

A) Contraction; Ca2+; attach

B) Relaxation; ATP; detach

C) Contraction; ATP; detach

D) Relaxation; Ca2+; attach

 

62) Most accurate sentence about avian air sacs?

A) Highly vascular membranes for gas exchange

B) The air sacs receive inspired air before it enters lung tissues

C) The volume of the air sacs is unaffected by body position

D) No significant gas exchange function and provide a tidal flow of gas

 

63) Which of the following is not an ideal candidate for DNA isolation from dogs.

A) Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs)

B) Liver

C) Kidney

D) Muscle

 

64)  _____________________ is a small insert in milk which inhibit the activities of microorganisms without refrigeration.

A) Bactofugation

B) Pasteurization

C) Radiation

D) Milk Shield

 

65) Read following statements and Choose correct option.

i) In Milk preservation, LP system is bactericidal to Gram negative organisms.

ii) In Milk preservation, LP system is bacteriostatic to Gram positive organisms.

 

A) Only i) is correct

B) Only ii) is correct

C) Both i) and ii) are correct

D) Both i) and ii) are wrong

 

66) Choose the correct match(s) from following

i) Blue milk – synecyanea

ii) Pink or Red milk – Serratia marcescens

 

A) Only i) is correct

B) Only ii) is correct

C) Both i) and ii) are correct

D) Both i) and ii) are wrong

 

67) ISO 22000 is related with

A) Environment Management System

B) Food Safety Management System

C) Quality Management System

D) None of these

 

68) Non meat ingredients that are frequently used to extract proteins to achieve necessary binding in restructured meat are

A) Salts and nitrite

B) Salts and phosphates

C) Salts and ice-water

D) Phosphates and nitrites

 

69) Black spot in meat is caused by

A) Sporotrichum sp.

B) Cladosporium sp.

C) Penicillium sp.

D) None of these

 

70) The meet that are most susceptible to cold shortening are

A) Beef and lamb

B) Beef and carabeef

C) Chevon and lamb

D) Chevon and pork

 

71) The extent of perishability of livestock product can be reduced by

A) Processing

B) Immediate transport

C) Immediate distribution

D) Packing

 

72) The SGSY scheme was started during

A) 1997

B) 1998

C) 1999

D) 2000

 

73) Panchayati raj means a system of

A) Rule

B) Administration

C) Power

D) Government

 

74) The vanishing kind of farming practice due to population pressure in India is

A) Ranching

B) Mixed

C) Diversified

D) Large scale

 

75) Extension programme should be

A) Strictly permanent

B) Flexible

C) Permanent

D) Highly flexible

 

76) As per BIS recommendation level of urea feeding in total dry matter intake of dairy cattle should not exceed-

A) 1.0%

B) 3.0%

C) 2.0%

D) 10%

 

77) Most of the roughage contains

A) > 18% crude fibre &< 60% TDN

B) > 60% TDN & 18% crude fibre

C) Medium in DCP and TDN

D) > 18% crude fibre &> 60% TDN

 

78) Average nitrogen content in any feed protein is considered to be

A) 10%

B) 16%

C) 18%

D) 6.25%

 

79) ‘Perosis’ condition in growing chicks is observed due to deficiency

A) Magnesium

B) Manganese

C) Cobalt

D) None of these

 

80) ___________________ deficiency can lead to cannibalism and feather picking in poultry

A) Fat

B) Moisture

C) Salt

D) Calcium

 

81) Avivastra is a cross of sheep breeds

A) Chokla/Nali x Rambuillet/Merino

B) Malpura x Rambuillet

C) Malpura x Dorset

D) Sonadi x Suffolk

 

82) As per BIS, the number of cows (400 kg), sheep (70kg) and pig (100kg) per 10 m2 space for transportation are:

A) 8, 25 & 20

B) 15, 40 & 50

C) 5, 10 & 15

D) 10, 15 & 30

 

83) Slatted floor with wooden materials at distance from ground is used for goat housing in which region of India

A) North East

B) South

C) North West

D) Northern region

 

84) Zebu cattle breeds having dished profile forehead and lyre horn are

A) Kankrej & Kherigarh

B) Kenkatha

C) Malvi and Tharparkar

D) All of the above

 

85) Male sex drive in domesticated animals is also known as

A) Sexing

B) Maturity

C) Puberty

D) Libido

 

86) How many pure lines are selected for producing a commercial layers is

A) One

B) Three or Four

C) Two

D) Five

 

87) Parthenogenesis is more common in

A) Chicken

B) Turkey

C) Duck

D) Pigeon

 

88) Severe bluish green discoloration of yolk is due to feeding of

A) Alfalfa meal

B) Soya meal

C) Cotton seed meal

D) None of the above

 

89) The total number of sperms that are to be introduced into the female for obtaining desired fertility is

A) 25 Million sperms

B) 75 Million sperms

C) 100 Million sperms

D) 50 Million sperms

 

90) Specific gravity of an egg is

A) 01 to 1.06

B) 07 to 1.09

C) 02 to 1.4

D) 2 to 1.5

 

91) Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion

A) Standard error

B) Coefficient of variance

C) Standard deviation

D) Both A & B

 

92) If genotypic frequency of dominant homozygote is P= 0.05 and genotypic frequency recessive homozygote is Q=0.65 then find out the gene frequencies p and q

A) p=0.20 & q= 0.80

B) p=0.80 & q= 0.20

C) p=0.30 & q= 0.50

D) p=0.40 & q= 0.60

 

93) Transient genetic correlation between two traits is due to

A) Linkage

B) Pleiotropy

C) Both

D) None

 

94) Which of the following is a part of National Cattle Breeding Policy in India?

A) Grading up

B) Crossbreeding

C) Selective breeding

D) All the above

 

95) Inbreeding is used for commercial production of inbred lines in

A) Cattle, buffalo

B) Pig & poultry

C) Pig & buffalo

D) Poultry & cattle

 

96) Which among the following is known as most pathogenic tapeworm of poultry?

A) Cotugnia diagonophora

B) Raillietina tetragona

C) Davainea proglottina

D) Raillietina echinobothridia

 

97) Coffee colour urine in cattle is an important finding in which of the following disease?

A) Trypanosomosis

B) Theileriosis

C) Toxoplasmosis

D) Babesiosis

 

98) Snoring disease in cattle and buffalo in India caused by

A) Schistosoma nasalis

B) Syngamus trachea

C) Lungworm

D) Heart worm

 

99) Bottle jaw condition in ruminants is seen in which of the following disease

A) Fasciolosis

B) Haemonchosis

C) Amphistomosis

D) All of the above

 

100) The most widely used drug for the treatment as well as prophylaxis of Surra is

A) Buparvoquone

B) Oxytetracycilne

C) Antrycide prosalt

D) Diminazene

 

101) Which of the following districts of Rajasthan forms both the inter-state and international border lines?

A) Bikaner

B) Jaisalmer

C) Sriganganagar

D) Bharatpur

 

102) Which of the following districts have the most fluctuating percentage of annual rainfall?

A) Banswara

B) Jaisalmer

C) Bikaner

D) Jalore

 

103) What is the fort of Jaisalmer called?

A) Golden Kernel Fort

B) Sonar Fort

C) Both

D) None

 

104) In which district of Rajasthan, petroleum reserves have been found?

A) Sikar

B) Barmer

C) Nagaur

D) Jalore

 

105) Where is the famous Kaila Devi Fair held?

A) Bharatpur

B) Tonk

C) Dausa

D) Karauli

 

106) In the fair of Rajdevji, which among the following is the center of attraction?

A) Ghudla Dance

B) Neja Dance

C) Thirteen Pali Dance

(D) Garba Dance

 

107) Which folk deity is remembered for the treatment of snakebite?

A) Gogaji

B) Tejaji

C) Babuji

D) Ramdev

 

108) Who is worshiped as the liberator of cows and the god of serpents?

A) Father

B) Gogaji

C) Tejaji

D) Ramdev

 

109) Where is Karni Mata temple located?

A) Karauli

B) Kolayat

C) Nokha

D) Deshnok

 

110) Which among the following district of Rajasthan does not shares border with Pakistan?

A] Barmer

B] Jodhpur

C] Sri Ganganagar

D] Jaisalmer

 

111) Which dance form of Rajasthan is included in Intangible Cultural Heritage list of UNESCO?

A] Ghoomar

B] Kalbelia

C] Kachi Ghodi

D]Terah Taali

 

112) Keoladeo National Park is located in which district of Rajasthan?

A] Bharatpur

B] Ajmer

C] Jaipur

D] Kota

 

113) Which river of Rajasthan is known as ‘Van Ki Asha’ (Hope of the forest)?

A] Banas

B] Luni

C] Chambal

D] Mahi

 

114) Chaurasi Khambon Ki Chhatri or “84-Pillared Cenotaph” is located in which district of Rajasthan?

A] Bundi

B] Alwar

C] Jaisalmer

D] Jaipur

 

115) Rajasthan State Formation Day is celebrated on

A) 05, October

B) 17, August

C) 01, November

D) 01, August

 

116) In which district Central Camel Breeding Centre is located?

A) Baran

B) Jodhpur

C) Tonk

D) Jhunjhunu

 

117) The tomb of Maharana Pratap’s horse Chetak is situated at

A) Udaipur

B) Rajasamand

C) Ganga Nagar

D) Bharatpur

 

118) Which city is called as ‘Rajasthan Ka Nagpur’?

A) Kota

B) Tonk

C) Jhalawar

D) Bharatpur

 

119) The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Rajasthan district?

A) Udaipur

B) Baran

C) Dholpur

D) Banswara

 

120) State Animal of Rajasthan is

A) Chinkara & Camel

B) Tiger

C) Camel only

D) Chinkara only

 

121) Who was the first Chief Minister of the Rajasthan?

A) Pandit Hiralal Shastri

B) Mohan Lal Sukhadia

C) Hira Lal Devpura

D) Shiv Charan Mathur

 

122) In which city of Rajasthan, the observatory of the Indian Weather Department is located?

A) Jodhpur

B) Kota

C) Jaipur

D) Bikaner

 

123) Which city is known as the ‘City of Wales’?

A) Rajasamand

B) Alwar

C) Udaipur

D) Jodhpur

 

124) The largest poppy seed producing district in Rajasthan is

A) Udaipur

B) Tonk

C) Jaipur

D) Bhilwara

 

125) Which among the following is Rajasthan Tourism’s tagline?

A) A New Experience

B) The Incredible State of India

C) Full of Surprises

D) God’s Own Country

 

126) Which is the highest peak of Rajasthan?

A) Achalgarh

B) Bairath

C) Ser

D) Guru Shikhar

 

127) Which district in Rajasthan has the highest literacy percentage?

A) Bikaner

B) Kota

C) Jaipur

D) Tonk

 

128) The popular Jaswant Animal Fair is conducted in which district of Rajasthan?

A) Kota

B) Karoli

C) Bharatpur

D) Jaisalmer

 

129) Which city is famous for White Cement in Rajasthan?

A) Kota

B) Bhilwara

C) Gotan

D) Pushkar

 

130) The ploughed fields have been found at which among the following sites of Indus Valley Civilization in Rajasthan?

A) Bagor

B) Kalibangan

C) Ahar

D) Gilund

 

131) Which among the following gives the details about the history of rulers of Mewar from Bappa Rawal to Kumbha?

A] Varvath Inscription

B] Ranakpur Inscription

C] Raj Prashashti

D] The Inscription of Osian

 

132) Which among the following accounts of ancient Rajasthan provided an information upon land revenue records?

A] Khareeta Bahi

B] Hukumat Ri Bahi

C] Adsatta

D] Patta Bahi

 

133) Who among the following was the author of the “Nritya Ratnakosha”, which gives finest details about Indian music?

A] Kumbha

B] Bhojraj

C] Rana Raimal

D] None of the above

 

134) The Vijay Shahi coins were in use in which among the following areas of Rajasthan?

A] Jaipur

B] Ajmer

C] Jodhpur

D] Alwar

 

135) The “Manmori Inscription” has been a source of knowledge about history of which among the following areas of Rajasthan?

A] Mount Abu

B] Chittor

C] Udaipur & Mewar

D] Sirohi

 

136) The area in the vicinity of which among the following was earlier known as ‘Jangal Desh’?

A] Jodhpur & Bikaner

B] Bharatpur & Alwar

C] Nagaur & Sikar

D] Jaipur & Ajmer

 

137) The Phooldal Mela has been associated with which among the following sects of Rajasthan?

A] Ram Snehi

B] Sikhwal

C] Terapanthi

D] Bishnoi

 

138) Who among the following was responsible for throwing a Bomb to assassinate Lord Hardings in Delhi?

A] Pratap Singh Barhat

B] Jorawar Singh Barhat

C] Kesari Singh Barhat

D] Both A & B

 

139) Who among the following is generally believed to have started gold coinage in Mewar?

A] Bappa Rawal

B] Rana Sanga

C] Rawal Ratan Singh

D] Rana Kumbha

 

140) In which year Mughal Empire was replaced by the British Empire?

A) 1843

B) 1818

C) 1828

D) 1819

 

141) Which state is located North of Rajasthan?

A) Gujarat

B) Uttar Pradesh

C) Punjab

D) West Bengal

 

142) Desert National Park is located at

A) Bikaner

B) Jaisalmer

C) Bhilwara

D) Kota

 

143) Total number of districts in Rajasthan are

A) 28

B) 33

C) 38

D) 24

 

144) Makrana town is famous for?

A) Suitings production

B) Crude oil

C) Marble

D) Edible Oils

 

145) Lake Foy Sagar situated at?

A) Bhilwara

B) Jodhpur

C) Bikaner

D) Ajmer

 

146) Largest Cement Producer of Rajasthan is

A) Chittorgarh

B) Pali

C) Sirohi

D) Nagaur

 

147) Where is the Headquarter of North-Western Railway located?

A) Udaipur

B) Chittorgarh

C) Marwar

D) Jaipur

 

148) Who among the following is the author of “Vir Vinod” which gives a history of Mewar?

A] Muhnaut Nainsi

B] Suryamal Mishran

C] Baankidas

D] Shayamaldas

 

149) Who among the following was the founder of Marwar Prajamandal?

A] Megharam Vaidya

B] Subhash Chandra Bose

C] Jaynarayan Vyas

D] Manikya Lal Verma

 

150) Rajasthan Public Service Commission was established in the year

A) 1947

B) 1949

C) 1951

D) 1953

No one is perfect, so are we. If you find any mistake or confusion regarding questions, feel free to write to us at [email protected] or [email protected].

Toppers of the Mock Test on Rajasthan PSC’s Veterinary Officer Exam

Toppers are adjudged based on their score. Only those candidates have been adjudged as toppers who have submitted the Mock Test between 4.00PM to 8.30PM on 30.07.2020.

Rank Name of the candidate District No. of correct questions
1 Ahi Chaudhary Nagaur 122
2 Pooja Solanki – 120
3 Basant Godara Bikaner 115
3 Shahista Sareen Bikaner 115
4 Amit Kumar Bhiwani 110
5 Vikramjeet Singh Bikaner 109
5 Kanika Poonia Jaipur 109
6 Ravi Patel Jodhpur 107
7 Priyanka Choudhary Sikar 105
8 Sachin Patidar Dungarpur 104
9 Jamta Jabalpur 103
9 Suman Churu 103
10 Nikhil – 102
11 Ramesh Kumar Jhunjhunu 101
11 Dharampal Ganganagar 101
11 Saurabh Daria Jhunjhunu 101
12 Jayshree Jodhpur 100
12 Sahil Gahlian Sonipat 100
13 Pushpa Jaipur 99
14 Ankita Churu 98
14 Priyanka Raj Bikaner 98
15 Parmaram Gorachiya Bikaner 96
15 Garima Bikaner 96
15 Suvidhi Choudhary Jhunjhunu 96
16 Shobha Nagaur 95
16 Neelam Godara Hanumangarh 95
16 Upendra Singh Bharatpur 95
16 Gulab Raj Bharatpur 95
17 Mohd Idris Ajmer 94
17 Pooja Prajapat Bikaner 94
17 Nitesh Yadav Mahendergarh 94
17 Komal Bikaner 94
18 Jeeshan Nabi Bikaner 93
18 Anand Nagaur 93
18 Rajeev Kumar Alwar 93
19 Animesh Kunwar Jhunjhunu 92
19 Babu Lal Jalor 92
20 Rahul Kumar Alwar 90
20 M. Tejaswi Sindhu Ratnam Yanam 90
20 Dinesh Choudhary Jodhpur 90
20 Manjeet Sharan Delhi 90

Results should encourage everyone to prosper for a better position.

Best wishes to all the aspirants!

 

The mock test is developed by

For any assistance, contact

Dr. Shyamsundar Pawale at [email protected]

Next Mock Test: Veterinary Sciences 3.0 – 02.08.2020 (Sunday).

Stay Tuned!

 

If you want to write an article or share your experience related to animal husbandry with other farmers, write your article and email it to [email protected].

If any student of veterinary science or veterinary doctor wishes to publish an article with us, then write your article and email at [email protected]. You can send your articles in Hindi, Punjabi, Urdu or English.

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